This is a very intriguing question. It appears that these particular conversations (Matthew 19 and Mark 10) are between Jesus and the 12 disciples. So, they were all specifically men. In the Matthew passage, he specifically precedes this teaching with a reference to the twelve disciples.
In both passages, this is in direct response to Peter's statement that "we have left everything to follow you." It seems that Peter is referring to the 12 disciples in that statment, who literally had, indeed, left everything to follow Him.
Then Peter said in reply, “See, we have left everything and followed
you. What then will we have?” 28 Jesus said to them, “Truly, I say to
you, in the new world, when the Son of Man will sit on his glorious
throne, you who have followed me will also sit on twelve thrones,
judging the twelve tribes of Israel. 29 And everyone who has left
houses or brothers or sisters or father or mother or children or
lands, for my name's sake, will receive a hundredfold[c] and will
inherit eternal life. 30 But many who are first will be last, and the
last first. Matthew 19:27-30 ESV
Peter began to say to him, “See, we have left everything and followed
you.” 29 Jesus said, “Truly, I say to you, there is no one who has
left house or brothers or sisters or mother or father or children or
lands, for my sake and for the gospel, 30 who will not receive a
hundredfold now in this time, houses and brothers and sisters and
mothers and children and lands, with persecutions, and in the age to
come eternal life. 31 But many who are first will be last, and the
last first.” Mark 10:28-31
So, had the audience been a mixture of both men and women who were His devoted followers, He certainly may have said "husbands or wives" rather than just "wives". In the context of all men, though, including husbands would seem odd--just as it would be to refer to wives when speaking to an audience of all women.