My questions is in regards to this snippet:
...almost no denomination believes that inspiration and infallibility are attributed to modern versions/translations of Scripture. -- David Stratton
It was written as an answer to Does Mark 16:9-20 Prove the Bible is not the infallible word of God?.
I'm trying to get a better mental picture of what "modern version" means here. My impression is that the Bible hasn't been changed for hundreds of years, maybe even over a thousand years.
Question: When did versions of Scripture start being regarded as not fully infallible?
My best guess is as derived as follows: I found this (although I can't judge its authenticity):
Mark 16:9-20 has been called a later addition to the Gospel of Mark by most New Testament scholars in the past century. -- Bible-Researcher.com
and the other answer in that question states:
The process by which those writings were declared to be Scripture took hundreds of years, and the addition of the last twelve verses of Mark certainly predate that. -- DJClayworth
So I'd guess that these "later additions" were added within the "hundreds of years" since the time of Jesus (around 2000 years ago). This would imply "modern version" could mean one compiled ~1700 years ago. I don't really know if this is accurate though.