"Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me." - Isaiah 43:10 (KJV)

In King Follett Sermon, Joseph Smith teaches that members of the LDS church may too become gods one day:

Eternal Life to Know God and Jesus Christ (King Follett Sermon)

The scriptures say it, and I defy all the learning and wisdom and all the combined powers of earth and hell together to refute it. Here, then, is eternal life—to know the only wise and true God; and you have got to learn how to be gods yourselves, and to be kings and priests to God, the same as all gods have done before you, namely, by going from one small degree to another, and from a small capacity to a great one; from grace to grace, from exaltation to exaltation, until you attain to the resurrection of the dead, and are able to dwell in everlasting burnings, and to sit in glory, as do those who sit enthroned in everlasting power. And I want you to know that God, in the last days, while certain individuals are proclaiming His name, is not trifling with you or me.

Moreover; we are aware that the Church of Latter Day Saints believes that the Godhead (Father Son & Holy Ghost) are three separate gods sharing the same will.

Although the members of the Godhead are distinct beings with distinct roles, they are one in purpose and doctrine. They are perfectly united in bringing to pass Heavenly Father's divine plan of salvation.

Godhead (The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints)

Also; Abraham 4 teaches creation was committed by multiple gods.

  1. And then the Lord said: Let us go down. And they went down at the beginning, and they, that is the Gods, organized and formed the heavens and the earth.

With this in mind; How does the Church of Latter Day Saints interpret Isaiah 43:10? Bonus points if the verse is kept in context.

  • See also Deuteronomy 6:4. – Mathematician Jan 21 '17 at 13:53
  • Regarding "let us go down" is that something like "the royal we" as in when Queen Victoria said to Disraeli "we are not amused" and thus used the third person plural in referring to herself? – KorvinStarmast Jan 22 '17 at 2:53

First, it's important to take that scripture in context so going through verse 12 reads:

  1. Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.
  2. I, even I, am the Lord; and beside me there is no saviour.
  3. I have declared, and have saved, and I have shewed, when there was no strange god among you: therefore ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, that I am God.

In this scripture, the Lord is addressing the issue of the Israelites worshipping other gods. He tells them that he, YHWH, is Israel's only god and the only god to be worshiped, not some false idol (see Isaiah 42:17 ...say to the molten images, Ye are our gods.).

Other scriptures of the Israelites being encouraged to stop worshiping other divine beings or idols, but Yahweh alone (it's a recurring theme/problem):

Another important doctrine on man becoming gods is that to us(man) there is only God. I will use an analogy (god::father): each of us has one father. One can strive to become a father, and those that do don't replace their father; their father is now a grandfather. Anything you do, or children you have, add to your grandfather's posterity also.


Scriptures on theosis (man becoming a god):

Creation by gods/plurality of gods:

On verse 10 where it says before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me. is similar to Isaiah 44:6 where again the Lord says beside me there is no God. Both seem to exclude all else, but similar phrasing found in other scriptures helps us understand that this is not the case. Isaiah 47:8-10 on the city of Babylon:

  1. Therefore hear now this, thou that art given to pleasures, that dwellest carelessly, that sayest in thine heart, I am, and none else beside me; I shall not sit as a widow, neither shall I know the loss of children:
  2. But these two things shall come to thee in a moment in one day, the loss of children, and widowhood: they shall come upon thee in their perfection for the multitude of thy sorceries, and for the great abundance of thine enchantments.
  3. For thou hast trusted in thy wickedness: thou hast said, None seeth me. Thy wisdom and thy knowledge, it hath perverted thee; and thou hast said in thine heart, I am, and none else beside me.

Seems to exclude any other city but in Zephaniah 2:15 on the city of Ninevah, it has the same phrase.

  1. This is the rejoicing city that dwelt carelessly, that said in her heart, I am, and there is none beside me: how is she become a desolation, a place for beasts to lie down in! every one that passeth by her shall hiss, and wag his hand.

This verse (the original v10) just means that the Lord is our Savior, no one else. It's also important to look at the phrasing 'before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me', God has always existed, and since He will always exist no man can ever be exalted "before" or "after" Him. All men who are exalted to godhood will be contemporaries of Yahweh, and will never precede nor follow Yahweh's existence. They will also become part of the divine council over which he presides.

More articles on this topic (it's a quite broad subject, any one topic touches upon other unique Mormon beliefs and it would be a very long answer if I tried to answer all of them here)

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    Drive-by downvoters... why do they never want to say what to improve about the answer? – Matt Jan 21 '17 at 16:39
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    I neither downvoted nor upvoted, but there is nothing in the answer itself that specifies it is a Mormon belief. True, you cited scripture from LDS.org, but I don’t think that is sufficient. Granted, the answerer him/herself might be Mormon, but readers should not have to make that assumption. Perhaps you can cite some Mormon/LDS commentaries to substantiate your answer. It would justify an upvote from me if you did. – user900 Jan 21 '17 at 21:36
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    @OliverK He says "God" (big 'G') not "god" (small 'g'). The former denotes God of gods, LORD of lords, the Messiah, Saviour of the world. Christ in the only one who will fulfill this role on Earth. There are many gods, but only one God of all the Earth to whom we can look to for a remission of our sins. – ShemSeger Jan 22 '17 at 22:14
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    @ShemSeger I encourage you to add a new answer! Would be lovely to hear from you. Moreover; maybe you can elaborate on your comment here for example 'God of all the Earth', as a Protestant i believe God is incontrol of the universe so I would love to understand the LDS scriptural basis behind this. Your comment doesn't give me that much insight into this and I trust you're capable of constructing a great response as seen in your previous answers! :) – Oliver K Jan 22 '17 at 23:59
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    @depperm Would Mormons not see Isa 47:8-10 and Zeph 2:15 as false claims of pride (in contradistinction to God's true claims)? – Sola Gratia Feb 25 '18 at 14:13

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