Just to be clear, this isn't a question about whether there were ten, eleven, or twelve in the group, but rather how certain we are, perhaps based on the syntax of the original Greek, that "and then to the Twelve" in 1 Corinthians 15:5 is a reference to an appearance of Christ to a group of apostles, as opposed to a series of individual appearances to the rest of the apostles besides Peter. Perhaps this is an odd question, as I've never seen it asked before. Is there any dispute about this among New Testament scholars?

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    Welcome to Christianity.SE. For a quick overview, please take the Site Tour. For more on what this site is all about, please see: How we are different than other sites. Though your question might work here, it might work better at Biblical Hermeneutics. – Lee Woofenden Dec 22 '16 at 20:32
  • Whether or not this is contentious, any opinions given will be just that, as there is no Biblical explanation given. It may e challenged as being only the opinion of Paul since he was not there for that particular event. – BYE Dec 22 '16 at 20:46
  • @BYE I was inclined to agree with you at first, but then the question is asking for a clear boolean answer; If there is one dissenter, the answer is "Yes, there is a doubt." – Flimzy Dec 22 '16 at 21:30
  • @Flimzy Good point. Perhaps I should have phrased it as "How certain are scholars..." or "Do any particular scholars argue this point.." – voltzart Dec 22 '16 at 21:37
  • @voltzart: I think it's worded well enough as it is. Although the only possible answer you'll get is "No", since proving an affirmative answer would be impossible. – Flimzy Dec 22 '16 at 22:00

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