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I have a question regarding the topic of hell. How can anyone claim that there isn't a hell when Jesus clearly states that there is? Also, the Bible speaks of fire, screaming, and other horrific descriptions. Please explain how one can cease to exist when the Bible clearly states that people go to hell.

In other words, what is the biblical basis for annihilationism?

marked as duplicate by Lee Woofenden, Dick Harfield, Ken Graham, Nathaniel, curiousdannii Oct 23 '16 at 3:39

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  • Welcome to Christianity.SE. For a quick overview, please take the Site Tour. Thanks for asking a question here. I've edited it to make it on-topic (see: What topics can I ask about here?). However, since there is already an answer to that question here, I've also marked it as a duplicate. – Lee Woofenden Oct 22 '16 at 21:58
  • Psalm 37:20, and Jesus' own saying in Matthew 10:28. In other words, "annihilationism" doesn't mean that there is no hell but rather that those who go to hell eventually are consumed by the fire and cease to exist. Note the word "eventually." – david brainerd Feb 8 '17 at 5:31

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