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All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness... (2 Timothy 3:16)

Certainly the New Testament wasn't available to the writer at the time, and most likely he'd not seen any of the letters therein. So, when he writes "all scripture" would he have been including his writing of 2 Timothy 3:16, since he'd have no way of knowing that it would be considered "scripture" as he was writing it? And would he have been including "any" books of the new testament since he'd not seen any of it? Or, is he simply referring to the OT?

Also, keeping in mind the rule of testimony and testifying on one's own behalf.

EDIT:

According to your site and it’s writings: The word for "scripture" in the Greek text is (ἡ) γραφή, often occurring in the plural, (τῆς) γραφῆς, which literally means "writing(s)."

So then: “Every scripture inspired by God is also profitable for doctrine, for reproof,”

Could be stated: “Every writing inspired by God is also profitable for doctrine, for reproof,” T herefore it could be said that: “Any” writing(s) could be found to be “inspired by God”.

Which leads us to the question: Who’s to say?

Makes one wonder how many of the great poets and writers we’ve had sent in disguise to warn as prophets or lead as teachers that have been exempt from canonization.

Amy Grant, Neil Young, Charles Bukowski, C.S. Lewis, Steve Martin… you get the idea. I suppose then it comes down to man arguing with man on who’s inspired by God and who isn’t.

You’ve opened up a can of worm holes for me.

marked as duplicate by Mr. Bultitude, curiousdannii, Lee Woofenden, Nathaniel, Matt Gutting Sep 30 '16 at 15:19

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • From Ellicot's commentary: Although this rendering is grammatically possible, the more strictly accurate translation, and the one adopted by nearly all the oldest and most trustworthy versions (the Syriac and the Vulgate), and by a great many of the principal expositors in all ages (for instance, Origen, Theodoret, Grotius, Luther, Meyer, Ellicott, and Alford), runs as follows: “Every scripture inspired by God is also profitable for doctrine, for reproof,” So this verse itself, given that alternate translation may answer your question. – Andrew Sep 29 '16 at 15:47
  • Lastly, Barnes summarizes the majority position in his notes: "This properly refers to the Old Testament, and should not be applied to any part of the New Testament, unless it can be shown that that part was then written, and was included under the general name of "the Scriptures;" compare 2 Peter 3:15-16. But it includes the whole of the Old Testament, and is the solemn testimony of Paul that it was all inspired. If now it can be proved that Paul himself was an inspired man, this settles the question as to the inspiration of the Old Testament." – Andrew Sep 29 '16 at 15:50
  • Actually, I'm not certain that this does constitute a duplicate, since the focus of that question, given the accepted answer, seems to be the nature of inspiration, while this question asks which are the inspired writings. I wonder if clarification from the OP could differentiate the questions sufficiently. – Andrew Sep 29 '16 at 16:40
  • I agree it's not a duplicate. The earlier question was about the meaning of a phrase, while this one is about Paul's (or pseudo-Paul's) intentions. – Dick Harfield Sep 29 '16 at 22:02
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    I agree that it's not a duplicate of the linked question, but it is a duplicate of What does “scripture” mean in NT writing? – curiousdannii Jun 20 '17 at 13:18
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Ellicot's commentary offers a different translation than what is commonly seen, which also sheds some light on the matter:

Although this rendering is grammatically possible, the more strictly accurate translation, and the one adopted by nearly all the oldest and most trustworthy versions (the Syriac and the Vulgate), and by a great many of the principal expositors in all ages (for instance, Origen, Theodoret, Grotius, Luther, Meyer, Ellicott, and Alford), runs as follows: “Every scripture inspired by God is also profitable for doctrine, for reproof,”

The verse itself, given Ellicot's comments, says not that "All Scripture is God-breathed is useful...", but that "All Scripture that is God-breathed is useful..." which I believe answers your question as asked: All Scripture here refers to all inspired writings.

Barnes summarizes the majority position on the matter in his Notes on the Whole Bible:

"This properly refers to the Old Testament, and should not be applied to any part of the New Testament, unless it can be shown that that part was then written, and was included under the general name of "the Scriptures;" compare 2 Peter 3:15-16. But it includes the whole of the Old Testament, and is the solemn testimony of Paul that it was all inspired. If now it can be proved that Paul himself was an inspired man, this settles the question as to the inspiration of the Old Testament."

Indeed, we should consider the passage in context, in which Paul is encouraging Timothy to continue to find value in the Scriptures that he had known and studied since he was young, having grown up with a Christian mother and grandmother (2 Tim. 1:5). Since Timothy was Greek, we can assume that Paul is referring to the Septuagint, the standard Greek OT Bible in the Churches at that time.

2 Timothy 3:14-15 (NASB) You, however, continue in the things you have learned and become convinced of, knowing from whom you have learned them, and that from childhood you have known the sacred writings which are able to give you the wisdom that leads to salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

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