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Notice I said was because since 1969, the liturgy may be celebrated in the vernacular.

I know the Roman Catholicism no longer employs Latin-only, but I am wondering why they did. Not interested in the history of it, but rather what scriptural/doctrinal/theological rationale was stated for it being mandatory.

  • A partial answer is olrl.org/new_mass/whylatin.shtml but it is strictly "practical" (and with some doubtful historical details). – WGroleau Aug 28 '16 at 18:22
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    Welcome to Christianity.SE. For a quick overview, please take the Site Tour. I'm not sure you can separate the rationale from the history. With that in mind, I believe your question is answered here: What is the reasoning for Latin being the official language of Catholic Mass? – Lee Woofenden Aug 28 '16 at 18:27
  • Well, that answer, if correct, also answers this question, i.e., there is no scriptural/doctrinal/theological rationale. Thanks. – WGroleau Aug 28 '16 at 18:44
  • One has to always maintain a distinction from public worship in Latin and with private worship outside of the sacraments which was always permitted in the vernacular. Also keep in mind that within the ancient Roman Rite there were exceptions to the use of Latin only. – Ken Graham Aug 28 '16 at 20:10
  • See my answer here. – Geremia Aug 30 '16 at 23:33