The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John.
8 And having gone forth on the next day, we came to Caesarea, and having entered into the house of Philip the evangelist, being of the seven, we stayed with him.
9 And with this man there were four daughters, virgins prophesying.
10 And remaining many days, a certain prophet named Agabus came down from Judea.
11 And having come to us and having taken Paul’s belt, having bound his feet and hands, he said, “Thus the Holy Spirit says, ‘In this way the Jews in Jerusalem will bind the man whose belt this is, and will deliver him into the hands of the Gentiles.’”
In reading Luke 16:16 and Matthew 11:13, the inference is that the prophets and the law are operative up to and including John the prophet. So how is it that in Christianity we still find a reference to the office of a prophet in the gospels, whereas the same saying 'overtook' the laws?