It is my understanding that the LDS faith places great emphasis on the family unit because they believe that through the sealing powers performed in the Temple by the holy Melchizedek priesthood, these families can live "together forever." The sealing aspect is not only important for uniting the family for all eternity, but for reaching the highest degree of glory in the Celestial Kingdom. And for those who have passed on who hadn't had the opportunity to do their own work (which is why the Church invests so much time in doing genealogy), the LDS members can vicariously do these sacred ordinances for these individuals.

Since we know that Mary and Joseph are undoubtedly one of the most righteous couples/parents, and are deserving of the highest degree of glory in the Celestial Kingdom, has the LDS Church performed their ordinances by proxy for them? If so, would they seal Christ to Joseph?

Am I right in assuming that in Christ's time, sealings were not performed in the Jerusalem Temple?I suppose the same could be said for all the righteous Biblical figures? These answers may not be answerable, but I wasn't sure if the LDS Church has any statement on it or not.

We can assume, well, "I'm sure they are taken care of... don't worry about it." But we know that Christ was an example, and while He was sinless, He still entered the waters of Baptism to show us the way. So I'm just curious if the LDS Church has mentioned the other sacred saving ordinances (according to LDS beliefs) pertaining to Christ and His family?

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    Temple sealings would not have been performed in the temple at Jerusalem, as work done there was under the authority of the Aaronic priesthood, but the sealing ordinance requires the higher, or Melchizedek priesthood. There is nobody we know of living in Israel who had the authority to seal until Jesus Christ, then his apostles (Matthew 18:18). It's possible (probable?) that sealings were performed by the apostles, and this could have included Mary and Joseph. In addition to ordinances for the living, we know that work was performed for the dead in New Testament times (1 Corinthians 15:29). Commented Aug 12, 2016 at 3:50
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    Even by the apostles, sealings probably would not have been performed at the Jerusalem temple. This is an interesting question and I'm curious if anyone knows of any authoritative statements about sealings or other Melchizedek priesthood ordinances in the New Testament church. Commented Aug 12, 2016 at 3:52
  • @SamuelBradshaw well, we know about giving the gift of the holy ghost and proxy baptisms. Description of the temple ordinances aren't in public scriptures, for obvious reasons. Commented Jul 1, 2017 at 2:20

2 Answers 2


Mary and Joseph must be sealed by proper authority (a Melchizedek priesthood holder with the authorization to perform the sealing) in order to receive the blessings of the sealing ordinance, including inheriting the highest degree of Celestial glory. This is true for all of God's children. I doubt an exception would be made for them.

What we do not know is when Mary and Joseph received this ordinance, if they received it yet at all. That is not officially part of Mormon doctrine or records as far as I know. It is possible they were sealed by Jesus and/or the apostles while they were living or had their ordinances performed vicariously under the authority of the apostles after they passed away, but it is not certain.

In essence, they are required to be sealed, but the Church does not claim to have official records of their sealing. Due to the current policy against performing ordinances for famous persons (as well as the uncertainty you mentioned), it is unlikely this ordinance will be performed in the near future.

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    I know it's risky to assume this and go down that path, but who would Christ be sealed to (in regards to parents)? Commented Aug 14, 2016 at 23:10
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    @ButterflyandBones There isn't an official doctrinal response to that question. In general Christ seems to be a special case for everything. For example, did He need to give the priesthood and ordained to office while on the earth? Or does He hold authority intrinsically? I can imagine He's done enough to merit the highest level of Celestial glory, but will Jesus ever be married? Will He need to be sealed to His wife? It's these kinds of questions that I have the opinion not even the prophets and apostles know the answers.
    – intcreator
    Commented Aug 14, 2016 at 23:19
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    I would say to his wife. The bible does not contain a complete history of Jesus' life and since he was the perfect example he more then likely was married as it is necessary to reach the celestial kingdom, who he married is not mentioned
    – depperm
    Commented Dec 22, 2016 at 16:23
  • @brandaemon I know my institute teacher claimed that he went through all the ordinances on Earth, for the same reason he was baptized. Commented Jul 1, 2017 at 2:18

This is after the fact, but some additional information provides insight into this question that a comment is too short to relay.

(A) Jesus was a high priest of the Melchizedek Priesthood during His mortal ministry (Heb. 7:15-22) and (B) Jesus is the source of all priesthood authority (D&C 107:2-5).

Further, it is inappropriate to overlay today's religious procedures on ancient times. The Lord requires us to use temples today ... but being the source of all Priesthood authority and living at a time when His culture was ruled by the lesser Aaronic and Levitical procedures of the ancient Hebrews, He could (and did) do what he wanted.

Yes, in LDS theology we require that Mary and Joseph be sealed for time and all enternity through the sealing authority of the Melchizedek Priesthood. We do not know if this sealing has taken place. Please note that neither the Bible nor LDS Theology knows anything about Joseph past Jesus' youth. People recognized Jesus as Joseph's son (e.g., Luke 4:22), but we hear nothing about Joseph himself. Joseph may not have lived to see Jesus enter His ministry, and Jesus may not have acted in the role of an High Priest of the Melchizedek Priesthood before that time.

But He could have, or He could have later with a proxy standing in for Joseph (reasonable since we believe proxy baptisms occured during His time, 1 Cor. 15:29)

Simply put, though we do not know what happened, Jesus had the authority to perform the sealing Himself.

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