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The Apostles Creed makes reference to Jesus descending into Hell. I have heard it claimed that His time spent in Hell was part of His redemptive work--in other words, that was necessary for Him to completely "pay the price" for our sins. However, John 19:30 says:

When he had received the drink, Jesus said, “It is finished.” With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.

Which I have generally heard interpreted to mean that the work of redemption was finished at that moment--the moment of His death.

I have also heard that the original language of the Apostles Creed did not mean Hell in the sense of "place of eternal punishment" but more in the sense of a metaphorical, ambiguous "place of the dead."

Is there Biblical evidence that Jesus spent time in Hell (as we know it today--the place of eternal punishment)? If so, was His time there necessary for our redemption, or was there some other purpose to His visit?

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    When Lord Jesus said, "It is finished." on the cross, He meant that His earthly ministry was finished. The redemptive work was not finished when He died on the cross, because without the resurrection there is no redemption. See "And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain." (I Corinthians 15:14, KJV)
    – Geoffrey
    Aug 25, 2011 at 16:22
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    I'm not sure I buy the argument that his earthly ministry was finished, because he came back for another several weeks. Also, many say that your I Cor. reference means that resurrection was proof of his redemptive work, not necessarily completion of his redemptive work.
    – Flimzy
    Aug 25, 2011 at 17:58
  • The ministry after His resurrection was a new ministry. In the new ministry, He explained to the apostles from the Scriptures the meaning of what had happened. During the new ministry of 40 days, only His apostles saw Him.
    – Geoffrey
    Aug 25, 2011 at 22:04
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    @Geoffrey Van Wyk: Uhhh... I Cor 15:6 Says he appeared to "more than 500" people.
    – Flimzy
    Aug 25, 2011 at 23:19
  • those 500 were brethren; so they were disciples if not all apostles. What do you think of 1Co 15:8 where the apostle Paul mentions seeing Him? By the time apostle Paul came around to the Message, Lord Jesus had already ascended.
    – Geoffrey
    Aug 26, 2011 at 6:58

6 Answers 6

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Yes! Errr... NO!

There are three competing theories on this.

  1. Jesus went to Hell with the damned.

  2. Jesus went to paradise in Hades

  3. Jesus went to heaven.

All of these beliefs are based on a few critical verses.

Verse 1: 1 Peter 3:18-20

In 1 Peter 3:18-20 (NIV), we see:

18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit. 19 After being made alive, he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits— 20 to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. In it only a few people, eight in all, were saved through water,

This supports (pretty conclusively) beliefs 1 and 2 by stating that Jesus, in the spirit, went to speak to the "imprisoned souls".

Verse 2 Luke 23:43

We see in Luke 23:43 (KJV)

43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise.

This pretty conclusively states that he went to paradise. This supports beliefs number 2 and 3.

Verse 3 Luke 23:46

Luke 23:46 (NIV) states:

46 Jesus called out with a loud voice, “Father, into your hands I commit my spirit.” When he had said this, he breathed his last.

The idea is that Jesus definitely didn't go to hell, since he committed his spirit into the Father's hands. Therefore, this is used to support beliefs 2 and 3.

Vers 4 Ephesians 4:9

This verse is often used to say that Jesus "descended into hell" or "the depths" or something (NIV)

9 (What does “he ascended” mean except that he also descended to the lower, earthly regions?

However this doesn't really hold water since the reference point of the ascension means that he really descended to earth. Also, the translation "lower, earthly regions" supports the idea that he descended to Earth rather than other translations which state "lower earthly regions" (notice the lack of the comma, which is an invalid translation).

This verse is often used to support belief #1.

So, which belief is correct? This is something that is difficult to see.

1 Cor. 13:12 (KJV)

12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.

I should note another idea that supports belief #2 is the fact that there are two different words for "Hell". One is the fiery pit referred to in Revelations and one is the place called "Hades". Unfortunately, we don't have any good, solid definition for "Hades", so some have interpreted that as the "paradise" that Jesus was referring to on the cross. This interpretation is used to support that second belief.

Read this article for much more information.

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    Who was Jesus to give his Soul to? Whether you go to Hell or to Heaven, your Soul is in the hands of God. So your last statement is not fact, but merely opinion.
    – capitalaudience.com
    Mar 12, 2015 at 16:59
  • @EcommerceConsultant To which "last statement" are you referring? My actual last statement is "Read this article for much more information." All my other statements don't seem to line up at all with what you are asking.
    – Richard
    Mar 12, 2015 at 17:52
  • oh, I apologize. I was speaking about Luke 23:46 (NIV), verse 3.
    – capitalaudience.com
    Mar 12, 2015 at 20:52
  • Aah, I understand your objection. The problem with your analysis ("not fact, but merely opinion") is that this opinion is actually doctrinal interpretation. Meaning, it may or may not be my opinion, however it is the "opinion" of a doctrine. There are many people who would read this verse and interpret it to mean to that Jesus went directly to heaven (or paradise). While it seems to be simply opinion, interpretation is much deeper more complicated topic. Ultimately, interpretation is the only means we have of learning "facts" from the bible.
    – Richard
    Mar 18, 2015 at 11:09
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First, it's important to understand that a biblical understanding of hell is not as cut and dry as we might like it to be. That's another discussion.

Second, the Nicene creed, which is most widely used creed across Catholic, Orthodox and Protestant, simply says:

he suffered death and was buried.

with no mention of hell.

Third, any orthodox (that's orthodox with a lowercase o) understanding of the crucifixion includes that Christ died. In fact the shortest "creed" of sorts found in many Communion liturgies is simply:

Christ has died, Christ has risen, Christ will come again

The first part of that, "Christ has died", is really all we need to know.

If Jesus, fully God and fully man, died, that means a part of the Godhead/Trinity/God died. Think about that for minute, God died. (Yes, it's illogical) There was a cutting off, a separation ("My God, my God why have you forsaken me"). That separation is the essence of hell/Hades/the opposite of heaven. So, I don't think it matters whether or not Jesus traveled in some form or someway to a "place" that is "hell", He, by being cutoff, forsaken by the Father experienced "hell".

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    +1 Excellent way to reconcile the definition of hell with what Christ experienced while not needing to even take a stand on the bits we don't fully understand anyway.
    – Caleb
    Sep 30, 2011 at 9:31
  • It is not illogical to say that God died. First, it is God the Son who died, not the Father or the Holy Spirit. Since God the Son assumed humanity (flesh) upon himself, then why couldn't he die? I mean, if you say it's illogical for God to die, why not say it's also illogical for God to become human? He did both. "Fully human" means just that, which includes the ability to die. God the Son could die because he is a compound hypostasis composed of two natures: deity and humanity. That is why God hungered...wept...thirsted...and yes, died.
    – user900
    Nov 28, 2012 at 3:43
  • -1 you cited no biblical basis
    – Brian Hitchcock
    Feb 26, 2015 at 9:51
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YES, He did.

1 Peter 3:19-20 (NIV)

19 After being made alive, he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits— 20 to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. In it only a few people, eight in all, were saved through water,

Those disobedient spirits are obviously in Hell.

Matthew 12:40 NIV

For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of a huge fish, so the Son of Man will be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

There are all kinds of verses that touch on Hell being deep inside the earth, and we know that inside the earth is molten sulfur.

Acts 2:31 NKJV

31 he, foreseeing this, spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that His soul was not left in Hades, nor did His flesh see corruption.

His soul went to Hades but it was not left there.

Ephesians 4:9 NKJV

9 (Now this, “He ascended”—what does it mean but that He also first descended into the lower parts of the earth?

Also referring to Jesus first descending to the inner earth before ascending into Heaven.

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  • I disagree with the interpretation of Ephesians 4:9 to meaning that he descended into hell; and Matt 12:40 is weak, at best. However 1 Peter 3:19-20 solidly backs up this answer. +1 from me.
    – Richard
    Aug 25, 2011 at 16:07
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I can't dig up the scriptural reference right now, but it is my recollection that Jesus preached the Gospel to the souls of those already departed in Hades, which is what the creed refers to. It's not that Jesus in any way suffered in Hades, but that he went there and released souls.

Also, Hades is, in Greek mythology, a place where the dead reside and it's not certain that it correlates to Hell as we understand it, per se.

EDIT: The scripture reference is 1 Pet 3:19-20:

19 After being made alive, he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits — 20 to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built.

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    Lord Jesus did suffer in Hell, because the suffering in Hell is payment for sins. The blood he sweated in Gethsemane was for the abandonment in Hell, much more so than for the torture before His death.
    – Geoffrey
    Aug 25, 2011 at 16:16
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    @Geoffrey If the suffering in hell was the payment for our sins, then why did he say "It is finished"?
    – Richard
    Aug 25, 2011 at 16:33
  • @Richard, because that was the end of His earthly ministry. The ministry after His resurrection was a new ministry. In the new ministry, He explained to the apostles from the Scriptures the meaning of what happened.
    – Geoffrey
    Aug 25, 2011 at 22:03
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    @systemovich: No, sorry, there is no scriptural support for that idea whatsoever. Eternal damnation is reserved for the Devil and his Angels and those who are not redeemed by the blood of the Lamb (Mat 25, Rev 20). The payment for sin was the sacrifice of the spotless Lamb of God (cf Hebrews); the payment for rejecting that sacrifice is eternal judgement.
    – user32
    Jan 27, 2014 at 5:42
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Luke 16:23 tells us that the rich man went to a place called Hades. "And in Hell, he lift up his eyes being in torments" The Bible describes the rich mans experience in Hades as "being in torments".

Acts 2:27 clearly states that Jesus soul was not left in Hades and that implies his soul was there but was not left there permanently. Earlier in verse 24 of the same chapter the Scriptures gives a picture of what took place when Jesus was resurrected: NET "But God raised Him up, having freed Him from the PAINS of Death, because it was not possible for Him to be held in its power."

Before Jesus was raised he was bound in the pains of death that held him captive. Also Jesus making reference in Matt. 12:40 to Jonah as the example of His time spent in between the cross and his resurrection is quite telling.

"For AS Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth."

Strongs(G#5618) defines "AS" in these terms: "just as, that is, exactly like"

Exactly how was Jonah's time in the belly of the whale?

Jonah 2:2 "And said, I cried by reason of mine affliction unto the LORD, and he heard me; out of the belly of hell cried I, and thou heardest my voice."

He chose to use the one example of three days in hell suffering.

Roman 10 and Luke 8 give an exact location of Jesus before His resurrection and that it is not a pleasant place that even the devils are begging not to go there.

Romans 10:7 "or, “ ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’ ”fn (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead) NKJV

Luke 8:31 "And they begged Him that He would not command them to go out into the abyss." NKJV

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He went to the Limbo of the Fathers which is part of Hell. The Nicene Creed tells us he descended into Hell and on the third day he rose again. The Limbo of the Fathers is where the Justified of the Old Testament resided until after the Resurrection.

Q: What are we taught in the Fifth Article: He descended into hell; the third day He rose again from the dead? A: The Fifth Article of the Creed teaches us that the Soul of Jesus Christ, on being separated from His Body, descended to the Limbo of the holy Fathers, and that on the third day it became united once more to His Body, never to be parted from it again" Catechism of St. Pope Pius X, The Fifth Article of the Creed

"Q: What is here meant by hell? A: Hell here means the Limbo of the holy Fathers, that is, the place where the souls of the just were detained, in expectation of redemption through Jesus Christ" Catechism of St. Pope Pius X, The Fifth Article of the Creed

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    Can you provide some references for this?
    – Flimzy
    Nov 28, 2012 at 7:32
  • This is not an answer from Catholic dogma. There are many who take "descendit ad inferos" to actually mean Hell, not "A hell", but "the Hell" as in Gehenna.
    – Ignatius Theophorus
    Aug 21, 2013 at 0:52

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