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Genesis 3:8, depending on the translation, says one of two things with regards to what Adam and Eve heard:

  1. They heard "the voice of the Lord" walking in the garden

or

  1. The sound of the Lord God as he was walking in the garden.

It seems that in example one, the translations are intending to mean that the actual voice of the Lord God was walking in the garden, that is, had feet. In the second group, it seems they are stating simply that the Lord could be heard walking in the garden. Two very distinct interpretations.

KJV

And they heard the voice of the LORD God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God amongst the trees of the garden.”

Word English Bible

They heard the voice of Yahweh God walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and the man and his wife hid themselves from the presence of Yahweh God among the trees of the garden.


Now, compare that to:

NIV

Then the man and his wife heard the sound of the LORD God as he was walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and they hid from the LORD God among the trees of the garden.

ESV

And they heard the sound of the LORD God walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and the man and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God among the trees of the garden.


Is it possible that some translations are referencing the Memra of the Lord (as seen in the Aramaic Targum)? http://juchre.org/articles/word.htm The Memra is known as the voice of the Lord, the glory of the Lord, the Angel of the Lord, etc. Some, in fact, connect the Memra with Jesus Christ. Jesus, of course, being called the logos or the word of God.

So, are there any traditions, commentaries, church fathers, etc., that hold that, specifically, the individual walking in the garden in Genesis 3:8 was Jesus and not God the Father?

  • The KJV and similar translations can be interpreted two ways: [They heard the voice of] [the LORD God walking in the garden] or [They heard the voice of the LORD God] [walking in the garden]. – Samuel Bradshaw May 19 '17 at 1:47
  • 2
    Judaism supports the KJV/WEB translations. See here. – JBH Aug 1 '17 at 14:52
  • you are biblically correct.When they heard the "voice of the Lord" it means the Word is communicated and the Word was God and the Word is the Logos which is Jesus Christ. The Father symbol is WILL, and when the Will is spoken thru Word. The Word is alive & active (Hebrews4:12) and connect it with John3:8 the Light will guide you to complete the puzzle. – marian agustin Nov 4 '18 at 0:04
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There is one commentary that I am familiar which does in fact purport that is a reference to the preincarnate Jesus; that is the commentary on the whole Bible by David Guzik. I will inset it here that you do not have to look it up.

And they heard the sound of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God among the trees of the garden. Then the Lord God called to Adam and said to him, "Where are you?"

a. They heard the sound of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: Adam and Eve knew that when they heard the Lord coming, He would want to be with them. This was how the Lord had fellowship with Adam and Eve, in a very natural, close, intimate way.

i. Leupold on walking in the garden in the cool of the day: "The almost casual way in which this is remarked indicates that this did not occur for the first time just then . . . There is extreme likelihood that the Almighty assumed some form analogous to the human form which was made in His image."

ii. We can assume this is God, in the Person of Jesus Christ, appearing to Adam and Eve before His incarnation and birth at Bethlehem, because of God the Father it is said, "No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him" (Joh. 1:18), and no man has ever seen God in the Person of the Father. (1Ti. 6:16)

One of the niceties of Guzik is that he backs up his assertions with Scripture. That of course does not mean that those assertions are true unless you ascribe to the concept that Scripture is the inerrant word of God. Which would necessitate that all Scripture even remotely associated with this assertion be studied in depth, and even then many would not draw the same conclusion.

Hope this helps.

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