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John 7:8–10 reads:

8 “You go up to the feast. I am not going up to this feast, for my time has not yet fully come.” 9 After saying this, he remained in Galilee. 10 But after his brothers had gone up to the feast, then he also went up, not publicly but in private. [ESV]

A related question deals with the possibility of Jesus lying in this passage. A comment suggests that he changed his mind, and I'd like to know if that's the case.

Did Jesus change his mind in this passage, or did he intentionally misled his brothers?

The question: How is Jesus not lying in John 7? is not the same question as mine. I'm asking a different question: Did Jesus change his mind?

marked as duplicate by Nathaniel, ThaddeusB, Mr. Bultitude, Flimzy, Matt Gutting Nov 27 '15 at 22:06

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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    At the moment your question is a duplicate of the one you've linked to. The comment you referred to asks a related but new question. This is not the purpose of comments, and the answerer (or anyone else for that matter) is under no obligation to respond to it. You're welcome to edit your question to reask that question here, but in the meantime, I'm voting to close it as the duplicate it currently is. See/retake the tour for more insight on the site mechanics. – bruised reed Oct 26 '15 at 9:16
  • Thanks for the help on asking questions. I've edited the question to make it not a duplicate. – philippinedev Oct 26 '15 at 9:50
  • Even with the edits this is still close to a duplicate, but regardless, it's an opinion-based question. Whose opinion do you want? Some Christians might say Jesus changed his mind, while others will explain it differently. Which particular tradition's interpretation (Catholic, Calvinist, Methodist, etc.) do you want? – Nathaniel Oct 26 '15 at 10:59
  • I want the truth or the one nearest to the truth. To whom that answer may come I really do not care what their religious affiliation is. – philippinedev Oct 26 '15 at 13:45
  • @philippinedev If you want an answer based solely on analysis of the text, then I suggest this be migrated to the Biblical hermeneutics SE. Would you like a mod to move it for you? – ThaddeusB Oct 26 '15 at 15:51
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This is quite plain.

Jesus said "My time has not yet fully come", meaning when the time has fully come, He will go to the feast.

This is similar to the miracle at Cana where Jesus turns water into wine. There also He says, "My time is not yet come".

Edit:

In response to the comments, your understanding seems a bit narrow minded. Jesus went in secret - yes this is true.

But why?

  1. In many instances after healing someone Jesus asked that person to keep it a secret.

  2. Jesus asked Peter, James and John to keep His transfiguration a secret till He was resurrected.

  3. The Jews were seeking to kill Him and that too specifically during this festival of tabernacles.

All this was done in the same Spirit. Though none could kill Him before the appointed time, Jesus always avoided provoking the Jews. Although when directly confronted with a hypocritical action He retaliated, He did not do so without such an action on the part of the Jews.

That's why Jesus went secretly instead of openly.

  • Thanks, this is indeed plain. So do you think Jesus' brothers understood him in that way or were they led to believe that Jesus was not coming to the feast? – philippinedev Oct 26 '15 at 13:35
  • However, after his brothers had left for the festival, he went also, not publicly, but in secret. (Jn 7:10) Do you think that Jesus really want no one to know because he went not publicly but in secret? – philippinedev Oct 26 '15 at 13:39
  • If Jesus planned to go in secret then it follows that he also did not want his brothers to know. – philippinedev Oct 26 '15 at 14:25
  • If we want to think that Jesus misinformed his brothers, does he have a motive in doing that? – philippinedev Oct 26 '15 at 14:30
  • If we want to believe that Jesus really revealed that He is indeed coming but is waiting only for the right time, then, as far as the grammatical construction is concerned, is there another usage in NT where the negative "not" was used to mean the affirmative but only with a conditional statement? – philippinedev Oct 26 '15 at 14:37

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