While I understand there are many potential passages in the Bible of Jesus claiming to be a messiah (which I understand to mean "anointed"), a king, or one through whom it is necessary to know God, I'm interested to know if there are any places where He literally claims to be God, God-like, or related to God (i.e. the son of God).

Taking the Bible to be a reliable record of what He said (for the sake of this question), what Biblical passages illustrate Jesus literally saying He was God?

OP Edit: I see that my question has been edited to say "literally" which has caused a bit of turmoil, so I'll just say that for me "literally" is read to mean "literally stated, or inferred without interpretation". So "I intend to put on foot coverings" does not literally mean shoes, as it could mean socks, but "I intend to drive to the capital city of the country England" means you'll end up in London no matter which way you swing it. Interestingly I did try to ask the Biblical Hermenutics group this question and it was suggested I ask here.

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    Related: How do we know Jesus was God incarnate?
    – Richard
    Commented Nov 4, 2011 at 19:13
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    One thing to keep in mind is that during the time of Jesus, there were many false messiahs. Part of the reason for the skepticism of the Pharisees and the Sadducees was that they'd seen messiahs before. Commented Nov 8, 2011 at 20:43
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    Just for the sake of historical record I'd like it to be known that this question has been edited to say "literally", and not by me. This edit, however, is probably an improvement and I'll actually take answers for this (better) question rather than my original one, and re-accept the top voted answer. Thanks to all for your input on this!
    – kinofrost
    Commented Nov 11, 2011 at 16:45
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    It would be interesting to me to see this question broken up with the first part being claims of Jesus about himself being God (I'm not sure that one is possible) with the second part being Jesus claiming to be the Son of God (I think this part is fairly easy). As it is, the answers seem to mix freely between Jesus' direct claims about himself and other various other claims and proofs, which is a shame.
    – LightCC
    Commented Dec 27, 2015 at 12:55
  • @LightCC Right. It is a bit head-scratching why these two would be considered equivalent. Psalm 2 talks about the Messiah being the son of God. It does not seem the ancient Jews thought Ps. 2 meant the Messiah would be God - or compare Nathanael's use of the term in John 1. If anything, it is used as a co-referent for ... the Messiah! So did Jesus ever claim He was God? No, nothing direct. Did He ever claim He was the son of God? Yes. Commented Aug 24, 2021 at 6:19

13 Answers 13


There are many occasions on which Jesus states his identity with God.

  1. John 8:51-59 Jesus says

    John 8:58 (NIV) "Before Abraham was, I am"

    This is a clear reference to the name of God. Even if there were any doubt that this is the reference the reaction of the Pharisees clearly indicates that (in their eyes) this is a blasphemous claim.

  2. Matthew 9:1-7 Jesus claims to forgive sins, which the local officials (correctly) believed to be the perogative of God only.
  3. Thomas the apostle calls Jesus "My Lord and My God", which Jesus does not correct or deny.
  4. Also, we see this in John

    John 14:9b, 10a (NIV)
    ... Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father... Don’t you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me?

  5. Matthew 26:63-64

    The high priest said to him, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Messiah, the Son of God.” “You have said so,” Jesus replied.

(There is a certain amount of dispute over the last item. Many interpreters take Jesus statement as a colloquial affirmative, though some take it as meaning "so you say").

Insisting that statements by Jesus be 'literal' is missing the point. If Jesus made a statement that equated himself with God in a way that was clearly understood as such by his hearers, then that is what he did. The fact that it requires a little interpretation to our twenty-first century minds doesn't make it any less a claim.

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    "There are many occasions on which Jesus states his identity with God." I count 0 occasions in the above list where Jesus states his identity with God. John 14 is the closest. The John 8 reference is especially head-scratching, as 1. Jesus isn't stating an identity, rather making a statement about pre-existence and 2. a beggar says the same thing in John 9 (I am). Commented Apr 10, 2021 at 6:05
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    @AnthonyBurg Please don't argue with the answer. This is not the place. I'm well aware of the beliefs of non-trinitarians in this matter, and it doesn't change what I write. Commented Apr 10, 2021 at 14:54
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    @DJClayworth Comments are the place to point out obvious errors in an answer as an FYI for other readers. Commented Apr 10, 2021 at 15:28
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    You believe it's an error. We don't. Please read the last paragraph of my answer. Commented Apr 11, 2021 at 2:30
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    Re point 2, aren't the disciples of Jesus given authority to forgive sins also? How do you know what the hostile crowd is claiming is true? This point could use some corroborating scriptural evidence IMO. Commented Aug 24, 2021 at 6:18

Jesus claimed both to be God and to be the Son of God.

Jesus claimed that he is God.

John 10:28-33 (NIV)

28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”

31 Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him, 32 but Jesus said to them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?”

33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”

Jesus claimed to be the Son of God.

John 10:36 (NIV)

what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'?

Mark 14:61-62 (NIV)

61But Jesus remained silent and gave no answer. Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Messiah, the Son of the Blessed One?” 62“I am,” said Jesus. “And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven.”

The paradox of being simultaneously God and God's Son is explained by the ontological relationship of Jesus with His Father.

The Apostles call Jesus "God."

John 1:1 (NLT)

In the beginning the Word already existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Titus 2:13 (ISV)

as we wait for the blessed hope and glorious appearance of our great God and Savior, Jesus the Messiah.

1 John 5:20 (NASB)

And we know that the Son of God has come, and has given us understanding so that we may know Him who is true; and we are in Him who is true, in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life.

John 1:18 (NASB)

No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

2 Peter 1:1 (ESV)

Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ:

Jesus is called 'God' because he is of same nature with His Father.

Colossians 2:9 (HCSB)

For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,

Hebrews 1:3 (ESV)

He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high,

John 10:28-30(NIV)

28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”

Jesus is 'of same nature' with His Father because he is the only begotten of his Father.

John 1:14 (NASB)

14 And the Word became flesh, and [k]dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

John 1:18 (NASB)

8 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

John 3:16 (NASB)

16 “For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.


One who is begotten is of same nature with the parent who begat.

When we say "Jesus is God" we do not mean "Jesus is God the Father" but rather, we mean "Jesus is God by nature."This means that the word 'God' in the sentence "Jesus is God" functions as a predicate nominative in case.

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    I think this answer deserves to be first. Great biblical support of multiple different points. Commented Oct 19, 2018 at 2:02
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    @Radz C. Brown - I'm with Strasser. Commented Feb 27, 2019 at 22:03
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    "because you, a mere man, claim to be God" Worth pointing out 1. This isn't Jesus claiming to be God, it's a group of Jews who Jesus formerly called 'liars' and who Jesus said was unable to understand what he was saying. 2. 'be God' can also be translated 'be a god'. Greek grammar is the same. Compare Acts 28:6. Commented Apr 10, 2021 at 16:17

In Matthew 16:13-17, Jesus says my father, meaning that He is the Son of God:

Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, "Who do people say that the Son of Man is?" And they said, "Some say John the Baptist, others say Elijah, and others Jeremiah or one of the prophets." He said to them, "But who do you say that I am?" Simon Peter replied, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God." And Jesus answered him, "Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jonah! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven.

Also, a high priest asks Jesus if He is indeed the "Son of the Blessed", in which He replies "I am" in Mark 14:61-62:

But he remained silent and made no answer. Again the high priest asked him, "Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?" And Jesus said, "I am, and you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven."

I think a big reason of why Jesus never directly said that He was the Son of God (unless He was asked to say it) was because He wanted the people to exercise faith in Him, rather than seeing miracles and the like to prove to them that He was.

  • There's a question regarding "why not directly" at christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/42897/…
    – Pacerier
    Commented Jan 25, 2016 at 8:40
  • Pleas if you belive in logic fact , how Father=God ? is son of God come by sexuality method as human ? I think this is a great myths to guess that God had a son and He is a wealth to have son , This is the real majeste of God Commented Apr 29, 2020 at 20:12

At the onset, I guess it is essential to state that Son of God is same as God nothing more or less. Son of God is “of God.” The claim to be of the same nature as God—to in fact be God. God took a human birth and that’s how the title “Son” came to him though He was Himself is God. God though divine is revealed in human nature to man. Jesus Christ is the image of God to mankind. God - omnipotent, revealed Himself to mankind, in Jesus Christ.

Here is what Bible says on this:

Jesus gets an answer from His disciples that He is Son of God and acknowledges it affirmatively.

Matt. 16:15 He said to them, “But who do you say that I am?” 16:16 Simon Peter answered, “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” 16:17 And Jesus answered him, “You are blessed, Simon son of Jonah, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but my Father in heaven!

John 1:49 Nathanael answered him, “Rabbi, you are the Son of God; you are the king of Israel!” 1:50 Jesus said to him, “Because I told you that I saw you under the fig tree, do you believe? You will see greater things than these.”

Jesus is worshiped by people in His lifetime

In Revelation, an angel instructed the apostle John to only worship God (Revelation 19:10). Several times in Scripture Jesus receives worship (Matthew 2:11; 14:33; 28:9, 17; Luke 24:52; John 9:38). He never rebukes people for worshiping Him. If Jesus were not God, He would have told people to not worship Him, just as the angel in Revelation did.

In these verses Jesus Himself declares it:

John 8:58 Jesus said to them, “I tell you the solemn truth, before Abraham came into existence, I am!”

Jews who heard this statement responded by taking up stones to kill Him for blasphemy, as the Mosaic Law commanded (Leviticus 24:16).

John 10:35 If those people to whom the word of God came were called ‘gods’ (and the scripture cannot be broken), 10:36 do you say about the one whom the Father set apart and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?

Then take for example Jesus’ words in John 10:30, “I and the Father are one.” We need only to look at the Jews’ reaction to His statement to know He was claiming to be God. They tried to stone Him for this very reason: “You, a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33). The Jews understood exactly what Jesus was claiming—deity. When Jesus declared, “I and the Father are one,” He was saying that He and the Father are of one nature and essence.

Here Jesus accept this salutation from Thomas for otherwise He would have rebuked Thomas.

John 20:28 Thomas replied to him, “My Lord and my God!”

Jesus affirm that He is Son of God:

Matt. 8:29 They cried out, “Son of God, leave us alone! Have you come here to torment us before the time?”

Mark 3:11 And whenever the unclean spirits saw him, they fell down before him and cried out, “You are the Son of God.” 3:12 But he sternly ordered them not to make him known.

And in this verse, John clearly states that Jesus is true God.

1 John 5:20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us insight to know him who is true, and we are in him who is true, in his Son Jesus Christ. This one is the true God and eternal life.


John chapter 5 has some of the strongest statements of Jesus' deity recorded in the Gospels. It's a very good chapter to open to when talking with cultists.

5:22 - "For the Father judges no one, but has committed all judgment to the Son" Jesus is saying that He will be our judge in God's place. 5:27 repeats this.

5:23 - "that all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him." If we make Jesus less than God, then we dishonor God the Father.

5:25 - Those who hear the voice of the Son will rise again from the dead. If He is not calling Himself God, He is certainly attributing the traits of God to Himself. 5:28 repeats this.

5:28-30 At Jesus' voice people will be raised from the dead, some to life, others to condemnation. So our eternal fates are in the hands of Jesus.


Below are examples of both claims by Jesus to be God and the Son of God. First, I will discuss all references to Jesus as the Son of God. Then, I will discuss other claims Jesus makes to be God and other relevant titles ascribed to Jesus that attribute Him deity.

  1. There are (at least) 17 references to Jesus as the "Son of God" in the Gospels. Jesus either claims, affirms, accepts, or is quoted as claiming the title "Son of God" in each case. This doesn't count Mark 14:61-62 where Jesus affirms the title "Son of the Blessed," which is equivalent to saying the "Son of God" (see Thayer's Greek Lexicon for eulogétos, Strong's 2128). This also doesn't include some of the Gospel writer's claims rather than spoken claims, such as Mark 1:1. This also doesn't include the Father's affirmations that Jesus is His Son in Luke 3:22 and Matthew 17:5.

Sorted by instigator:

A. Himself: Matthew 27:43, Luke 22:70, John 3:18, 5:25, 10:36, 11:4, 19:7

(Note: this includes what He affirms, claims, and what others quote Him as claiming)

B. An angel: Luke 1:35

C. Various humans: the disciples (Matthew 14:33), Peter (Matthew 16:16), the centurion (Matthew 27:54, Mark 15:39), Nathaniel (John 1:49), Martha (John 11:27)

D. Demons: Mark 3:11, Luke 3:41, 8:28

Sorted by Gospel reference:

Matthew 14:33, 16:16, 27:43, 27:54

Mark 3:11, 15:39

Luke 1:35, 4:41, 8:28, 22:70

John 1:49, 3:18, 5:25, 10:36, 11:4, 11:27, 19:7

The above offers a more systematic approach to the "Son of God" title. Below are other titles or claims by Jesus referring to Himself or others referring to Him as God.

  1. Jesus accepts the title "Lord" and "God" by Thomas in John 20:28.

  2. Jesus often claims the title of "Lord" (Kyrios or Kurios), and he is given that title by the New Testament writers over 500 times in the New Testament. Note that Kyrios is how Yahweh and Adonai were translated in the Septuagint hundreds of years before Jesus and the Gospel writers (Elohim was translated as Theos). Also note you can read the Septuagint online here, here, or here to confirm.

  3. Jesus claims I AM (John 8:58)

  4. Jesus claims Alpha and Omega (Revelation 22:13)

  5. 7 specific "I am" claims (John 6:35, 6:51, 8:12, 10:9, 10:11, 11:25, and 14:6).

  6. Jews wanted to kill Jesus for the blasphemy of claiming to be God (Luke 5:20-21, John 5:18, 10:30-33).

  7. 7 times the New Testament writers referred to Jesus as God (Theos): John 1:1, 1:18, 20:28, Romans 9:5, Titus 2:13, Hebrews 1:8, 2 Peter 1:1.

  8. Jesus claimed to be from heaven: John 3:13, 6:38, 6:41, 6:51, 7:29, 8:23

  9. Jesus claimed to be the source or giver of eternal life or life: John 3:15, 3:16, 3:17, 3:36, 5:21, 6:27, 6:35, 6:40, 6:51, 8:12, 10:9, 10:10, 10:28

There are many other things that can be discussed, such as Jesus' claim that He will judge the world (John 5:23, 27), or Jesus accepting worship many times, which is certainly a claim to being God-like. As time permits I can make this answer more comprehensive.

  • You should add 1 Timothy 3:16. Commented Feb 27, 2019 at 22:06

Matthew 22:41-46 is a very important passage in the Bible where Jesus makes it very clear that he is indeed the God of David and so cannot be David's son nor a mere man as presumed by the Jews about the Messiah. It's surprising that none of the answers mentions this passage. Below are some of the verses from it,

43He said to them, “How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him ‘Lord’? For he says, 44“ ‘The Lord said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies under your feet.” 45If then David calls him ‘Lord,’ how can he be his son?”

Also we can see Jesus alluding to the Father - Son relationship of the Trinity in verse 44


Jesus explicitly calls himself the Son of God here in Matthew 26:

Matthew 26:63a-64b

The high priest said to him, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Messiah, the Son of God."

Jesus replied “What you have said is true.”

I don't think it gets much more clear than that.

I have to note that this is a paraphrase version, so the actual wording may be somewhat contentious.

  • -1 because this answer plays on the OP's weak definition of literal vs interpreted. I think it's actually impossible for an English translation of whatever it was Jesus said in this passage not to be an interpretation on some level -- I think your rendition of the passage is a valid paraphrase and proper interpretation but somebody should be objecting to the very idea that "literal" makes any sense at all in the context of us discussing this in a different language rather than throwing out an answer that plays off the problematic question.
    – Caleb
    Commented Nov 12, 2011 at 11:48
  • @Caleb Let me see if I understand what you're saying... "Literal" has multiple meanings (although all related, obviously). The question does not define "literal". Since this answer applies the primary definition of that word (adhering to the fact/primary custom/ordinary meaning), this answer is not valid? Also, instead of answering, based on one understanding of the word "literal", I should be challenging the OP's definition of the word "literal"? Wouldn't it be better to close the question than vote this answer down?
    – Richard
    Commented Nov 12, 2011 at 15:07
  • I commented here in the first place to discuss whether this was even a valid question. I suspect not as proved by this answer. Your answer isn't valid because it hasn't answered the "real" question, only played hot potato and passed off the responsibility. Rather than noting that asking for "literal" doesn't many any sense in a cross-language situation, you do the subjective work of translating/interpreting the passage, then make a case for your completed text being a "literal" statement, by which point there isn't much meaning left to that label. Or am I just crazy?
    – Caleb
    Commented Nov 12, 2011 at 16:15
  • @Caleb Regarding the question, I don't think it's constructive, although I do think it's a valid question. It should be asked, but within a doctrinal framework. Regarding the "literal" issue, it seems to follow the idea of biblical literalism (ie interpretation of the explicit, primary sense of the words) and also the definition of the word "literal" (adhearing to the fact/primary custom/ordinary meaning). I'm starting to think I'm confused on the point you're making, though.
    – Richard
    Commented Nov 14, 2011 at 18:54
  • Jesus never said to the world am god or am son and he never asked them to worship him , No reference about that and the testament you have is made corruption Commented Apr 29, 2020 at 20:09

The clearest statement by Jesus that He is the Son God (emphasis added):

John 8:54 (KJV)

54 Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your God:

  • "He is the Son God" What? Commented May 25, 2022 at 23:47

The first gospel to be written was Mark, which takes a cautious approach more applicable to an earlier period in Christianity. Jesus never refers to himself as the Son of God. Instead, he uses terms such as "Son of man." Even the disciples never call Jesus the Son of God. However, outsiders such as demons, the high priest and the centurion do make this claim. On two occasions, God himself announces that Jesus is his beloved son, in whom he is well pleased. In Mark 10:18, Jesus clarifies his lack or divine status, saying (KJV): "Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God." In this gospel (Mark 8:29-30), Peter only says that Jesus is the Messiah, and Jesus warns the disciples to say nothing of even this.

Matthew's Gospel was written somewhat later than Mark and (Matthew 16:16-17) now Peter can say that Jesus is the Messiah, son of the living God, to which Jesus responds with "...my Father which is in heaven." Here we are getting closer to a direct claim to divinity.

The fourth gospel clearly teaches that Jesus is divine. John 18:5-6 has Jesus state 'I am", and they fell back. Greek readers understood "I am" as a synonym for God (Some English Bibles translate this as "I am he," but the word 'he' is not in the original Greek), which scholars say is why they fell back when Jesus said this.

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    Mark 10:18 is not necessarily a denial of Jesus' divine status. It could also be read as a rhetorical question, saying, in essence, "If you call me 'good,' then you are calling me God. So be aware of what you are saying when you say that." Commented Jun 30, 2015 at 2:03
  • @LeeWoofenden Thank you for your insight. You are correct that almost every passage in the Bible could be interpreted in more than one way. I spent several months looking at the issues of what Jesus called himself, what the disciples called him and what others called him, in Mark's Gospel. This answer is based on my conclusions. Commented Jun 30, 2015 at 2:24
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    Somewhat undermining your thesis is Mark's first verse: "The beginning of the good news about Jesus the Messiah, the Son of God..." as well as 3:11 - "Whenever the impure spirits saw him, they fell down before him and cried out, 'You are the Son of God.'" & 15:39 - "And when the centurion, who stood there in front of Jesus, saw how he died, he said, 'Surely this man was the Son of God!'". Commented Nov 4, 2015 at 5:50
  • @bruisedreed Yes, I had thought of Mk 1:1: I don't rely on this, but some commentators believe that "Son of God" appears to be an interpolation here; in any case it is not part of the story of Jesus. .../cont Commented Nov 4, 2015 at 6:16
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    @bruisedreed I did some checking, to better answer the first part of your comment. The Oxford Annotated Bible notes, “other ancient authorities lack ‘the son of God.’” Also, Sinaiticus and the third-century Church theologian Origen omit ‘Son of God’ from Mk 1:1. As I said, I don't rely on this (Mk 1:1 as interpolation) but it completes the evidence that in the earliest gospel, the author was loathe to have Jesus or his followers refer to him as Son of God. Something that changed a few years later, as we see in Matthew. Commented Nov 4, 2015 at 21:38

No, Yeshua never explicitly says he is the son of God. He also never, ever says he is God (nor does anyone else). The closest verse that comes to an explicit statement is John 10:36...

Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? (KJV)

ὃν ὁ πατὴρ ἡγίασε καὶ ἀπέστειλεν εἰς τὸν κόσμον, ὑμεῖς λέγετε ὅτι βλασφημεῖς, ὅτι εἶπον, υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ εἰμι; (Greek)

If you look at the Greek, you'll notice Yeshua says υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ εἰμι (son of the God I am). However, there is no article before υἱὸς, so this could just as well read...

...because I said, I am a son of God?

This was not a claim to divinity. Yeshua was asking why the Jews were so angry at him just because he said he is a son of God. The Jews had misunderstood something he said earlier...

I and my Father are one.

Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.

Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?

The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. (Again...a god)" John 10:30-33

Rather than explain to the Jews that he is the triune god incarnated in the flesh or whatnot, Yeshua responds...

Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am a Son of God?

If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.

But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.

Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand

Yeshua says that even God called mere men, those who received the word of God, gods; so he didn't understand why they were so upset that he said "A son of God I am".

"And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith YHVH, Israel is my son, even my firstborn" Exodus 4:22

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    -1 because of incorrect use of Greek (didn't care to read the rest). Please see Colwell's Rule. Commented Oct 19, 2018 at 3:24
  • -1 The rule of Greek grammar that applies to John 1:1 is Colwell's rule - "A definite predicate nominative has the article when it comes after the verb; it does not have the article when it stands before the verb."
    – Anne
    Commented Dec 9, 2020 at 18:09

The Synoptic Gospels (Matthew, Mark and Luke) are the earliest of the four Gospels and were written from a common point of view. They are in very substantial agreement with one another. Herein, Jesus really walks the Earth, and his body has substance and weight. His voice vibrates to his changing mood. He loves and hates, caresses and curses, pleads and labors, exults and sings and dances. Jesus is not God himself, but a mere prophet among men... with all the flaws that are common among men. He was an ascetic who only accepted other ascetics as followers!

And when he was gone forth into the way, there came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life? And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God. Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Defraud not, Honour thy father and mother. And he answered and said unto him, Master, all these have I observed from my youth. Then Jesus beholding him loved him, and said unto him, One thing thou lackest: go thy way, sell whatsoever thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, take up the cross, and follow me.

— Mark 10:17-21

The Jesus of the Synoptics is a lot like the hippies of the 1960s, who revolted against the cultural standards of their parents... or like Gandhi, who revolted against the British empire. While worthy of admiration, he was still a mere man, not "God made flesh". And although overall pacifistic in nature, he was first and foremost a rebel against the authorities of his days, living and promoting a rather ascetic life removed from mainstream society.

If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple. And whosoever doth not bear his cross, and come after me, cannot be my disciple. For which of you, intending to build a tower, sitteth not down first, and counteth the cost, whether he have sufficient to finish it? Lest haply, after he hath laid the foundation, and is not able to finish it, all that behold it begin to mock him, Saying, This man began to build, and was not able to finish. Or what king, going to make war against another king, sitteth not down first, and consulteth whether he be able with ten thousand to meet him that cometh against him with twenty thousand? Or else, while the other is yet a great way off, he sendeth an ambassage, and desireth conditions of peace. So likewise, whosoever he be of you that forsaketh not all that he hath, he cannot be my disciple.

— Luke 14:26-33

The Jesus of John is very different. He is totally lacking the passion, the humanity that is abundantly found in the Jesus of the Synoptics. Instead, the Jesus of John is described as a superhuman embodiment of God itself. Unlike in the Syntopics, the whole atmosphere of the gospel of John is repressed, ethereal, supernal, eerie. And unlike the Jesus of the Synoptics, the Jesus of John promoted a lifestyle of obedience and submission in light of the authorities of his day.

And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. I and my Father are one.

— John 10:28-30

If one wants an authentic record of what Jesus actually did and said, the nearest he can come to it is in the Synoptics. The gospel of John, on the other hand, obviously contains more interpretation and mythology than history.

For reasons that go beyond the scope of this question, it is not the Jesus of the Synoptic Gospels but the Jesus of the Gospel of John that carries the greatest weight in how Christians perceive the historical Jesus. However, it is blatantly obvious in any rational approach that the gospel of John is far less reliable as a source on the historical Jesus than the Synoptic Gospels.

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    I am rather inclined to doubt that you have taken much care in your reading of the synoptic Gospels. And what's this? One minute you assert Jesus was an ascetic, the next minute he was similar to the 1960s hippies.. Were they ascetics??!! Neither should we have any doubts about the reliability of the Gospel of John - John was, after all, one of the most prominent of the Apostles. Commented Feb 27, 2019 at 21:20
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    @AndrewShanks : I guess Gandhi is a better comparison than hippies in that regard. Anyway, there is no way that the Fourth Gospel was written by John Zebedee or by any of the disciples of Jesus. The author of this book is not a single individual, but is at least three different writers/editors. Many of its characters are literary creations and were never intended to be understood as real people. And there is probably not a single word attributed to Jesus in this book that the real Jesus of actually spoke. This makes it, by far, the least reliable of the gospels. Commented Mar 1, 2019 at 9:21
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    So you are convinced John's Gospel is essentially a legend, a myth. Why do you think so? And what do you think qualifies you to trust your own judgement? And when do you think John's Gospel was written? And how do you think it found its way into the corpus of Holy Writ? Commented Mar 2, 2019 at 16:51
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    C.S. Lewis criticised Bible scholars who regarded the Gospel of John as a poetic, spiritual “romance” rather than as historical narrative. Lewis frankly doubted that such scholars knew very much about literature at all. “I have been reading poems, romances, vision-literature, legends, myths all my life,” he wrote. “I know what they are like.” So if someone “tells me that something in a Gospel is legend or romance,” he wrote, “I want to know how many legends and romances he has read, how well his palate is trained in detecting them by the flavor; not how many years he has spent on that Gospel." Commented Mar 4, 2019 at 8:26
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    Lewis had little doubt that the Gospel of John was reliable history. “Either this is reportage or else some unknown writer in the second century, without known predecessors or successors, suddenly anticipated the whole technique of modern, novelistic, realistic, narrative.” He generally found critical Bible scholars “to lack literary judgement, to be imperceptive about the very quality of the texts they are reading.” The trouble is these critical scholars are saying those who throughout the years have believed this gospel & had their lives radically changed are either fools or liars. Commented Mar 4, 2019 at 8:32

1 Does Jesus ever claim to be God?

2 Does Jesus ever claim to be the son of God?

There are many ideas about who Jesus is. We can see what the bible says and then compare that to those differing ideas.

1 Does Jesus ever claim to be God?

No, Jesus never claimed to be God. Naturally there must be some verses that suggest this, but none of them are from Jesus. It is always others who have given us fuel for the, 'Jesus is God', idea.

The premier answer here with a whopping 60 points (!) gives us some verses that point in this direction. Let's look at these and see if they stack up.

A - John 8:58 "Before Abraham was, I am"

Many assume two things from this verse. 1-Jesus says, 'I am'. This is supposed to be Jesus calling himself God because God /Yahweh used a similar term before the Exodus from Egypt. God is recorded in Hebrew, John is writing in Greek. There are other uses of 'ἐγώ εἰμι' ('I am') by people certainly not claiming to be God. 2- If we assume that because Jesus is 'before Abraham', it must mean Jesus pre-existed Abraham, and is therefore God. We find a good clue in Gal 3:16

The promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. Scripture does not say "and to seeds," meaning many people, but "and to your seed," meaning one person, who is Christ.

So now we see that Jesus is the descendant of Abraham and cannot be before him in a timeline. So what does 'before' indicate?

There are many verse that show Jesus as being the very core of God's plan for man - not just man's salvation, but the whole purpose for his existence. Not wanting to digress into a longer than needed answer, here is a link to explain this more.

The point is that 'before Abraham' does not prove anything about Jesus being God.

B - Matthew 9:1-7 Short story - Jesus healed someone and said, 'Your sins are forgiven'. So the rationale is that this must make Jesus God!

Not so fast. All we need to do is read on to v8.

When the crowds saw this, they were awestruck, and glorified God, who had given such authority to men.

who is the 'men' the verse refers to? Jesus is a another man among men! We know Jesus always said he could do nothing of himself - it was always the Father doing His works through Jesus. Why were they awestruck? Not b/c Jesus said he was God, but b/c they honoured God who did a miracle through Jesus! (a 'man' as Matthew tells us) Let's see another where Jesus is talking to the disciples/apostles.

John 20:23 If you forgive anyone’s sins, their sins are forgiven; if you do not forgive them, they are not forgiven.

Should we deduce that the Apostles are God too? Because Jesus gave them authority - just as God has given Jesus authority over sin and the eventual penalty of it.

And He (God) has given him (Jesus) authority to execute judgment, because He is the Son of Man. John 5:27

He (God) will judge the world in righteousness through a Man whom He has appointed.

All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Matt 28:18

These last two references are after Jesus was raised from the dead, but he is still a man - none of them make him God, but insist that he is not God as God is doing the appointing and the giving of these abilities. Why would God give such things to Himself? Wouldn't He already have them? Remember, Jesus is now exalted and still he is being given such things!

C - John 20:28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

Note 2 Cor 4:4

The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel that displays the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.

Who is the 'god of this world'? The Devil or Satan. Same Gr. word used of Jesus in John 20:28

So by that logic, Satan must be God too!

Why is Thomas calling Jesus a god (allegedly)? Thomas believed Jesus was dead! He knew that God was immortal from the scriptures - Could his God die? The disciples knew that God was their 'Father'.

Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.” 9 Jesus said to him, “Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father. John 14:8-9

Seeing the Father or God has nothing to do with the eyes. "you have not come to know Me" Jesus said - if they knew him, they would know the Father. Thomas finally got it when Jesus proved who he was - raised from the dead, he caught up real quick - knowing who Jesus really was, and through Jesus, knowing the Father God too! Not b/c Jesus was God, but b/c he represented God as he had said consistently whenever he spoke of his Father.

I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.

If we think Jesus is God, them now we have two Gods! Because Jesus also has a God. This is the risen Jesus speaking, the Jesus given life eternal that he didn't have before - and he still has a God! The same Jesus given the Holy Spirit at baptism - God doesn't have His own Spirit? Jesus is either God or he is not - he never said he was, and always pointed to the Father as God.

Another proof text is Heb 1:8

But about the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever; a sceptre of justice will be the sceptre of your kingdom.

But no one reads the next verse!

9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions

So we either have TWO GODS again or something else is being expressed. God is anointing Jesus 'above his companions'. In what universe does God have companions that He needs to be exalted over? Clearly, Jesus is described as a god - but NOT the one true God who is over all.

The shenanigans of persistently quoting the same verses out of context (like John 10:30) is a pastime played by those not willing to read what the actual bible teaches - what God, His son, and His other anointed have taught.

That will have to do - they are many more verses used to suggest Jesus is God, but like these ones discussed, they are all explained better in context and concert with other verses that show their true and intended meaning. When we examine the text exegetically we will see the truth preserved for us.

2 Does Jesus ever claim to be the son of God?

do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? John 10:36

Mostly it is others who testify that Jesus is God's son - His unique son that never sinned - made prefect by obedient suffering to be the Lamb of God - to take away all sin and defeat death itself.

Luke 1:35 And the angel answered her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be called holy—the Son of God.

Matthew 16:16 Simon Peter replied, “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.”

Jesus, being the son of God, does not make him God. If he were, there is no clear expression of this matter by himself, his Father, the prophets or his disciples/apostles - either before his birth or after his ascension. All these speak of the man Jesus - and quite clearly at that.

No, Jesus never claimed to be God.

Yes, Jesus and many others did claim he was the son of God.

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    Right, Jesus is the Son of God. So why at Matthew 26:63 why did the high priest Caiaphas ask Jesus to swear that He is 1, the Messiah and 2, that He is the Son of God? Why is it blasphemy resulting in death for Jesus claiming this? Jesus said at Luke 22;70, "Yes, I am." Secondly, the Jews themselves claim to be sons of God so why aren't they committing blasphemy? Can you give me one example of a person claiming to be the Christ/Messiah that was killed for making the claim? Lastly, can you give me an example of a son that does not share the same nature as his father?
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Dec 5, 2020 at 20:00
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    Ahh, Mr Bond. READ the chapter, slowly with a cup of tea, Jesus, himself, never claimed to be God or Yahweh - or he would be insane! (as they imagined) Because they never understood that he was of the Father and doing the Father's work, healing, forgiving sins, etc, they (in their wonderful wisdom) and out of selfish fear and anger, accused him of this claim - that he never made, and other charges, trumped up to convict him of anything worthy of death. This was the plan all along - for him to die.
    – steveowen
    Commented Dec 5, 2020 at 20:36
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    Well yea, were talking about Him right now. And why are you changing the subject with a question for me? What's absurd about it? Who was Jesus' biological father, can you name him? Matthew 1:20-23 explains how. Also notice at vs23, It says, "God with us," not like God with us. The Bible says there is not one human being starting after Adam sinned that was born sinless. Jesus was without sin and perfect, 1 Peter 2:22. This is why He was able to forgive sins. Even the Jews rightly said, "who can forgive sins but God alone." What did Jesus say that caused the Jews to want to kill Him?
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Dec 5, 2020 at 21:11
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    If you start from the assumption that "Jesus, himself, never claimed to be God or Yahweh - or he would be insane! " then you are, of course going to reach the conclusion that Jesus did not claim to be God - unless you are open to considering a non-traditional (for you) view of Jesus, name that he might actually be God. If you are not open to the possibility of that then you become impossible to converse with. Commented Mar 19, 2021 at 19:21
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    Thankfully I can read the text without the assumption of a trinity so it allows the truth to be apparent as God intended.
    – steveowen
    Commented Mar 19, 2021 at 20:14

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