In a recent Q&A on Hermeneutics.SE, I made an arguement that carried the implication that Jerome's translation of κεχαριτωμένη ('favored one’)† as gratia plena ('full of grace’)† in Luke 1:28 was misleading, conflated as it is with another phrase that has a different meaning in Greek. It was rightly pointed out that I didn't discuss the reason why Jerome made that decision. Since I don't see an obvious linguistic explanation,* I wondered if there might be a doctrinal and/or sociological explanation.
In another Q&A on Christianity.SE, Jerome is cited as a key proponent of the doctrine of the perpetual virginity of Mary. I'm not sure whether that has anything to do with the appellation “full of grace” or not. Other aspects of Mariology seem more relevant.
I'm interested in knowing:
- What did Jerome believe about the immaculate conception?
- What did he believe about Mary as Mediatrix of graces?
- Did he use Luke 1:28 in defense of any Mary-related doctrine?
† Glosses extracted from ESV and Douay Rheims, respectively.
*Particularly with regard to translation decisions, even if I disgree with the choice, I can sometimes see the reasons for a different decision. Here I don’t.