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Some verses seem to indicate that God is indeed not omnipresent such as Acts 7:48, "The Most High dwelleth not in temples made with hands". How is this specific verse reconciled with the doctrine that God is omnipresent?

  • For this site, we can ask about this specific verse and how it is reconciled with omnipresence doctrines. I'll make the edit for you, but you can change it after that if you want. – 3961 Mar 15 '15 at 21:54
  • In other words, ya can't CONTAIN God. It's an impossibility simply BECAUSE he is omnipresent. Moreover, as vast as the first and second heavens are (i.e., the firmament and outer space), not even THEY can contain God. As Stuart Hamblen put it: How big is God, how big and wide is His vast domain? To try to tell these lips can only start, He's big enough to rule His mighty universe Yet small enough to live within my heart (see hughsnews.com/…). Don – rhetorician Mar 16 '15 at 1:43
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'Dwelling' does not simply mean to 'be present'. It means to reside or inhabit. If you go into a shop, you are not 'dwelling' in the shop, but you are present there. If you say "I do not dwell in the shop" it doesn't mean you never go in there, or that you are not there now.

The point is that God is above 'dwelling' in places that humans have made. He has his own 'dwelling places (in so far as he dwells anywhere), but has no need of human temples.

  • It is clear in the OT that God dwelt in the temple in Jerusalem. – Dick Harfield Mar 16 '15 at 6:08
  • It is NOT clear in the OT, however, that God dwelt EXCLUSIVELY in the temple in Jerusalem. Cf. Psalm 139 (138 Vulgate) 7-13, wherein the Psalmist writes, in part, "If I ascend to heaven, thou art there! If I make my bed in Sheol, you are there! If I take the wings of the morning and dwell in the uttermost parts of the sea, even there thy hand shall lead me, and thy right hand shall hold me." – brasshat Mar 16 '15 at 7:29

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