Why Genesis 3:9 have different wordings in different Bible versions? For example:

" And the LORD God called unto Adam, and said unto him, Where art thou?"
" But the LORD God called to the man and said to him, “Where are you?”

  • There are seven differences between those translations! Please explain exactly what difference you want an explanation of. Please also tell us what the two translations are. – curiousdannii Mar 1 '15 at 11:32
  • Your questions is not quite clear. – John Max Mar 1 '15 at 12:32
  • Because they're independent translations? – MR. TOODLE-OO'D Mar 1 '15 at 13:35
  • "Adam" = "man" (in Hebrew). H3br3wHamm3r81 says that translating "Adam" in 3:9 is suboptimal, but the basis of the big difference is that there is only one Hebrew word. – mojo Mar 3 '15 at 6:49

The Hebrew text of Gen. 3:9 according to the Masoretic text states,

וַיִּקְרָא יְהוָה אֱלֹהִים אֶל הָאָדָם וַיֹּאמֶר לוֹ אַיֶּכָּה

The Hebrew word הָאָדָם (ha-adam) is composed of the definite article הָ (ha) prefixed to the noun אָדָם (adam). While the word אָדָם by itself may be translated as either "(a) man" or "Adam" (Gesenius, p. 13), whenever the word is prefixed with the definite article, it probably means "the man" and not "Adam." It would be highly unorthodox for a proper name to be prefixed with the definite article in Hebrew. For example, we see דויד (David), never הדויד (ha-David). Thus, it would be translated into English as,

And Yahveh God called to the man and said to him, "Where are you?"

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