Genesis 3:8 tells us:

Then the man and his wife heard the sound of the Lord God as he was walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and they hid from the Lord God among the trees of the garden

And Exodus 33:20 reads

But,” he said, “you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live.”

What is the Biblical evidence that this theophany was the second person of the trinity?

  • It seems to me that this question is already included in an earlier (and slightly wider) Q&A on this same verse. Duplicate?
    – Dɑvïd
    Commented Aug 1, 2017 at 10:52
  • I don't think any Church Father ever argued (or at least argued strongly) that Genesis 3:8 relates to Christ. Chrysostom's interpretation was that they were made to hear God's presence, even though there was not a physical presence. Ambrose said that whenever God is said to be "walking" in Scripture, it means that his presence was felt. I don't believe that there is any Rabbinic interpretation of the verse that holds that God was physically walking.
    – guest37
    Commented Nov 17, 2017 at 17:37

2 Answers 2


The Bible explicitly teaches that no on has seen the Father : Verses from the bible teach clearly that no one has seen the father -

No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him (John 1:18).

Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen (1 Timothy 1:17).*

Other verses are : John 6:46, John 5:37

In addition to this, the bible teaches clearly that Jesus is the one who reveals the father - For example John 1:18, already quoted. Colossians 1:15 says "The son is the image of the invisible God". This indicates that wherever God is seen with the naked eye in bodily form such as in the garden of Eden, the one mentioned is the second Person of the trinity, i.e Jesus.

  • Welcome to Christianity.SE. For a quick overview, please take the Site Tour. For more on what this site is all about, see: How we are different than other sites. Meanwhile, I hope you'll browse some of the other questions and answers on this site. Commented Oct 17, 2017 at 16:17

This answer comes from an LDS perspective; see the LDS Bible Dictionary for more.

The word "Lord" in Genesis 3:8 represents the name Jehovah in the original Hebrew. In some translations of the Bible it's printed in all caps to distinguish it from the generic word "Lord" (ruler). For example:

And they heard the voice of the LORD God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God amongst the trees of the garden. (Genesis 3:8, KJV)

In other translations, it's rendered directly as Jehovah:

And they heard the voice of Jehovah God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and the man and his wife hid themselves from the presence of Jehovah God amongst the trees of the garden. (Genesis 3:8, ASV)

Jehovah is Jesus Christ, the second person of the trinity.

  • 2
    Um ... I don't know where you got this 'Jehovah = Jesus' thing, but that's not really how this works. You should look up all the other places the same Hebrew name is used in Genesis and decide if you think all those instances are direct references to Jesus at the exclusion of the other members of the Trinity. I think you'll find even you don't support your own answer here.
    – Caleb
    Commented Jul 31, 2017 at 7:19
  • Sorry – I'm answering from an LDS perspective, but I thought that Jehovah being Jesus Christ (the second person in the Trinity) was a common belief in general Christianity (which is why I didn't specify that the perspective was LDS). I guess that's not the case... feel free to downvote/delete. Commented Jul 31, 2017 at 13:51
  • 1
    Here is the LDS official definition and basis of this belief: lds.org/scriptures/bd/jehovah
    – depperm
    Commented Oct 17, 2017 at 12:29

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