I've found two verses which seem to be contradictory, so I'm hoping someone can explain how they can be reconciled.

No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven--the Son of Man. (John 3:13, NIV)

As they were walking along and talking together, suddenly a chariot of fire and horses of fire appeared and separated the two of them, and Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind. (2 Kings 2:11, NIV)

Jesus was well-versed in the Old Testament, so why would he say what he did in John 3:13?

Is it possible that this was just a nasty tornado and Elijah was just not to be found (or elaborate metaphor for a "whirlwind" of an attack, ripping up dust like fire, from enemies and he was killed or kidnapped and killed)?

Note that the NLT adds "and returned":

No one has ever gone to heaven and returned. But the Son of Man has come down from heaven. (John 3:13, NLT)

But I don't know warranted this addition is, as no other translations have it.

  • 1
    Great question! There is also the case of Enoch.
    – user13992
    Jan 15 '15 at 19:18
  • Christ is only one “who ascended”. As in He did it. Whereas Bible says “God caused Elijah to ascend“. Elijah didn’t ascend. He was ascended.
    – Al Brown
    Sep 9 at 13:39
  • @AlBrown really? He was 'taken up' Mk 16:19, Acts 1:9, 1:2.
    – steveowen
    Sep 9 at 23:33

The Greek text of John 3:13 states,

John 3:13 in Robert Estienne's 1550 Textus Receptus

ΙΓʹ καὶ οὐδεὶς ἀναβέβηκεν εἰς τὸν οὐρανὸν εἰ μὴ ὁ ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ καταβάς ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ὁ ὤν ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ TR, 1550

which may be translated as,

13 And no one ascended into heaven except he who descended out of heaven, the Son of man who is in heaven.

There are some who believe that Jesus is speaking in John 3:13. Others believe that the author of the fourth gospel (who many assume to be a certain “John”) is speaking. However, identifying the speaker is not essential for the purpose of this discourse. Rather, we shall focus on the issue of the Lord Jesus Christ being the only one to ascend to heaven.

Those familiar with the Old Testament know that both Elijah the prophet and Enoch ascended to heaven before dying. Yet, John 3:13 states that no man ascended to heaven but the Son of Man, the Lord Jesus Christ. How, then, do we reconcile this supposed contradiction?

The Lord Jesus Christ ascended (ἀνέβη) to heaven and descended (κατέβη) out of heaven under his own power and volition. On the other hand, individuals such as Enoch and Elijah were taken or brought up to heaven by God.

Regarding Enoch, Gen. 5:24 states,

24 And Enoch walked with God, and he was not, for God took him.

כד וַיִּתְהַלֵּךְ חֲנוֹךְ אֶת הָאֱלֹהִים וְאֵינֶנּוּ כִּי לָקַח אֹתוֹ אֱלֹהִים

Enoch, being a man, could not and did not ascend under his own power and volition. Rather, God took him into heaven.

Regarding Elijah, 2 Kings 2:1 states,

1 And it came to pass, when Yahveh caused Elijah to ascend to heaven in a whirlwind, that Elijah and Elisha went from Gilgal.

א וַיְהִי בְּהַעֲלוֹת יַהְוֶה אֶת אֵלִיָּהוּ בַּֽסְעָרָה הַשָּׁמָיִם וַיֵּלֶךְ אֵלִיָּהוּ וֶאֱלִישָׁע מִן הַגִּלְגָּל

The infinitive הַעֲלוֹת (haʿalot) is conjugated in binyan Hifʿil, and thus means “to cause to ascend (go up).”

Gesenius wrote,1

Gesenius, p. 631, binyan Hifʿil of ʿalah

The Hebrew text literally states that Yahveh caused Elijah to ascend to heaven, or in more polished English, Yahveh brought/ took Elijah up into heaven. Like Enoch, Elijah could not and did not ascend under his own power and volition.

Thus we see that in both cases of Elijah and Enoch, these individuals were taken up into heaven by God and not under their own power or volition. On the contrary, the Lord Jesus Christ descended2 from heaven (upon his incarnation) and then later ascended to heaven (after his resurrection) under his own power and volition.


Gesenius, Heinrich Friedrich Wilhelm. Gesenius’s Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon to the Old Testament Scriptures. Trans. Tregelles, Samuel Prideaux. London: Bagster, 1860.


1 p. 631
2 Furthermore, no mere man has ever descended from heaven. This is conclusive evidence of the supernatural nature (i.e., deity) of the Lord Jesus Christ.

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    So basically the difference is in the deliberate use of the term "ascended", that Jesus ascended means he went up by his own will/action, whereas Elijah was taken up. Is that a correct summarization pretty much?
    – stimpy77
    Jan 15 '15 at 19:30
  • Indeed. When it says, "And no one ascended into heaven except he who descended out of heaven...," the fact that Jesus descended first out of heaven means that he's no mere man like Elijah and Enoch. Binyan Hif'il is generally causative. Meaning, God caused Elijah to ascend. "To cause someone to ascend" can also be understood as "to bring someone up." Another example. "To cause someone to remember" can be understood as "to remind." But, the important thing about Hif'il biyan is that it is causative. It doesn't say Elijah ascended to heaven, but rather, God caused Elijah to ascend.
    – user900
    Jan 15 '15 at 19:37
  • And as for Enoch, it explicitly says that God took him, not that he ascended (i.e., under his own power).
    – user900
    Jan 15 '15 at 19:39
  • 1
    @Jas3.1 The Greek says ἀνεφέρετο, which is the 3rd person imperfect indicative middle of ἀναφέρω, "to carry up." This may be interpreted as "he was carried up" or "he carried himself up," this Greek form is ambiguous in meaning.
    – Wtrmute
    Apr 6 '17 at 13:58
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    @SimplyaChristian: True, in this passage we have an aorist, which does distinguish between middle and passive (ἐπήρατο vs. ἐπήρθη). I guess this is where Tradition comes to the rescue, but that will not be acceptable to someone who holds to Sola Scriptura.
    – Wtrmute
    Apr 6 '17 at 20:25

You don't need to worry about the NLT translation adding "and returned" toward the beginning of John 3:13. To help show this, I will include a literal word for word translation of each Greek word into English. This is not a literal translation of the entire sentence, which might involve restructuring it, this is taking the Greek text and translating each individual Greek word into English words without restructuring the sentence. This comes from The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures. It also shows the Greek words just below the English ones. It is a very accurate translation when you want that type of translation. It has even been known to be the book a professor, Jason BeDuhn, used (uses?) for his classes. So all the students in the class used that book since he considered it the most accurate of its' type. He is an expert of Koine Greek. Of course that doesn't completely prove anything, and I don't agree with all of his beliefs about translation, but it does add to the case of this being a trustworthy translation.

The 1998, February 1 issue of The Watchtower quotes Dr. Jason BeDuhn (he is not one of Jehovah's Witnesses) as saying about that translation "..it is the best interlinear New Testament available.. (its') English rendering is accurate and consistent to an extreme that forces the reader to come to terms with the linguistic, cultural, and conceptual gaps between the Greek-speaking world and our own."

John 3:13 enter image description here

As you can see, it only talks about descending from heaven in reference to Jesus having come from there, and not as part of the opening statement about how no one else has ascended to heaven.

The Bible contains expressions of various meaning that can be translated as "heaven" or "heavens". Here is some detailed information on the topic of Heaven. In the account about Elijah, the heavens meant the atmospheric heavens in which windstorms occur, not the spiritual heavens. Jesus own words show this, as he clearly stated that no one had ascended to heaven. Acts 2:34 even indicates that David did not go to heaven. The primary hope held out in the Scriptures for the majority of God fearing people, is not one of heavenly life as an angel, but of everlasting life on the earth as humans, after it is cleaned of all wickedness and corruption. See What Is the Good News?, What Is the Resurrection? for more details on this.


In Scripture, "heaven" (shamayim / ouranos) has three possible meanings:

    1. The Beatific Vision, i.e. the state of seing the divine essence with an intuitive vision and face to face. This is the meaning in John 3:13. Paul calls it "the third heaven" in 2 Cor 12:2.
    1. The firmament (Gen 1:8).
    1. The sky or atmosphere. This is the meaning in 2 Kings 2:11.

Moving now to Enoch and Elijah, I will answer according to Catholic doctrine.

It is de fide that no human soul, much less a whole human person, enjoyed the Beatific Vision before Jesus died on the cross (with the exception of Jesus Himself, Who enjoyed it in his soul from the moment of his conception).

Therefore, at the time when Jesus spoke to Nicodemus, no whole human person or disembodied human soul had ascended to heaven (1), either by being taken up into heaven by God or by their own power or volition. Only "the only begotten God, the One Who Is in the bosom of the Father" (Jn 1:18) from all eternity, "Who descended from heaven" (Jn 3:13) when He assumed a human nature, was in heaven, both as God and, in his soul enjoying the Beatific Vision, as man.

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