Conventional Christianity would assert that all authors of the bible were divinely inspired to write exactly what they wrote.

What evidence is used as the basis of this assertion?

Is there recorded evidence of God establishing this through supernatural revelation, inferential or explicit evidence from some of the early writers (Clement, Polycarp, Irenaeus, etc.), or something else altogether?


For most Christian denominations, the answer is simple. Scripture is supernaturally inspired. The people who wrote the Bible wrote exactly what God intended them to write.

See the CARM article on 2 Timothy 3:16 for a more in-depth explanation.

Also from the allaboutruth.org website:

The Bible tells us that all Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial. 2 Peter 1:20-21 says, "Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation. For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit."

1 Corinthians 2:13 states, "This is what we speak, not in words taught us by human wisdom but in words taught by the Spirit, expressing spiritual truths in spiritual words." God impressed man with His message, then the individual author, using his own style of expression based on his personal, educational, and cultural resources put the message into words.

Romans 10:8 phrased it this way: "...The word is near you; it is in your mouth and in your heart. . ." God communicated to the author the content that He wanted written, and the author phrased the content with his skill, style, mind, and language. We can be certain that, although the very words came from each author, the message was as God had intended and is authentic, reliable, and infallible. - See more here

  • Is there any notable evidence from sources other than the authors themselves, as is the case in the passages in your answer. Also, what would be the presumed definition of 'scripture'? Is this a commonly understood definition throughout the bible and early Christianity? If so, is it defined as the 66 books in the mainstream Christian Canon? – John Norton May 5 '20 at 16:18

I could give you a long drawn out answer to your question, citing all kinds of Scripture, but the true question here is why would you believe what I say over the words of Jesus himself?

Luke 4:4 (many Translations) But Jesus answered him, saying, "It is written, 'MAN SHALL NOT LIVE BY BREAD ALONE, BUT BY EVERY WORD OF GOD.' "

  • Who gets to decide what constitutes the "word of God"? The Church Fathers? They burnt the Gnostics at the stake for having their own views about what constitutes the "word of God". Did Jesus whisper in the ears of the Church Fathers what is the "word of God"? Bad answer. – gideon marx Dec 30 '14 at 19:08
  • @gideonmarx Perhaps you might need to do a little research on that.Jesus was quoting Moses from Deuteronomy 8:3 So He humbled you, allowed you to hunger, and fed you with manna which you did not know nor did your fathers know, that He might make you know that man shall not live by bread alone; but man lives by every word that proceeds from the mouth of the LORD. and in doing so Jesus who is God was validating the Old Testament. If you care to do a little studying you will find that Jesus validated a lot of Scripture. – BYE Dec 30 '14 at 20:14
  • So, exactly how does your answer explain the validity of the letters of Paul? You completely missed the question. Bad, bad answer. – gideon marx Dec 31 '14 at 14:06
  • @gideonmarx We do not need to argue here, but sometimes it is better to do some research on your own before you ask a question. I could do the research for you and continue to post answers in comments until we are both blue in the face, but arguing back and forth here makes little sense. If you do not find an acceptable answer to your question I will be happy to help you in your research. But let's not be testy with one another as it is not how Jesus taught us to receive one another. – BYE Dec 31 '14 at 14:31
  • David Stratton answered the question properly and me agreeing with him or not is unimportant, he gets +1. You posted a 'comment' as an 'answer', and then have the nerve to defend your position by insulting me. Back down! – gideon marx Jan 1 '15 at 11:44

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