Is there biblical basis for the idea that if a married woman bears no children she won't go to heaven? Is there a biblical basis against the idea?

closed as off-topic by bruised reed, curiousdannii, fredsbend, Narnian, Matt Gutting Nov 12 '14 at 17:30

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "Questions asking for the truth or validity of a particular doctrine or belief (aka Truth Questions), and questions asking Is X a Sin? are not a good fit for our site, due to their subjective nature, and the vast number of possible Christian opinions on such topics. See: We can't handle the truth" – bruised reed, curiousdannii, Narnian, Matt Gutting
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • 2
    I would appreciate a reference to someone making the claim that salvation for married women is dependent on being a mother. – curiousdannii Nov 7 '14 at 22:09
  • Yes, I think we need to see someone claiming they hold this position first, before we address it's biblical basis, otherwise, we may be answering a question with no real applicability; a hypothetical, if you will. – fredsbend Nov 8 '14 at 18:38
  • @fredsbend or if you won't. – Matt Gutting Nov 12 '14 at 17:30

Yes she can

You're probably getting tripped up by this passage:

1 Timothy 2:13-15 ESV For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor. Yet she will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control.

Which, by itself and read without any context, does seem to imply that a woman needs to bear children to be "saved". But we should know better than to read passages without their surrounding context. Context is king ☺.

This idea that women need to bear children to be saved is, of course, totally contradictory to the rest of the new testament and any of Paul's other writings. Paul made great effort to emphasize the fact that it takes faith in Jesus Christ to make peace (i.e., get saved) with God.

Romans 2:28 ESV For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law. Galatians 3:11 ESV Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for “The righteous shall live by faith.”

So then what does the Timothy passage get at? Well, it's not totally clear, and when it's not clear you need to be open to reaching multiple valid conclusions (like this essay does). A popular viewpoint (and the one I take) is that Paul was speaking specifically about Eve--that Eve should save herself and everyone by eventually giving birth to the Christ.

  • 1
    Well Answered ~ – Neil Meyer Nov 7 '14 at 14:32
  • Whenever I read the word "woman" I like to substitute the word "church", and so get a free doctrinal lesson. In this case, I see something familiar: A church is shown to be elect by it's fruit-bearing. – ridthyself Nov 7 '14 at 18:01
  • @etothepowerofx You may want to interpret it that way but I see no reason to think that is what Paul intended. Sounds like eisegesis to me. – curiousdannii Nov 7 '14 at 22:11

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.