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According to Islamic teachings Muslims, Jews, and Christians are called "people of the book" as all three (Moses, Jesus and Mohammed) were given books that were revealed (as opposed to "inspired") to them by God the Almighty.

The book that was given to Moses was called Torah and Quran to Mohammed and Injeel to Jesus. Muslims believe that the four gospels that Christians believe in were written by his disciples and are accounts of Jesus' teachings but they are not the revealed book Jesus was given by God (the Injeel).

Does the Church acknowledge any revealed book given to Jesus by God?

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    This question doesn't really make too much sense from a Christian perspective. Jesus didn't get given books, he inspired and gave books to us. – curiousdannii Oct 28 '14 at 3:36
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    Since Christians om general believe Jesus to be God incarnate, this question really makes no sense whatsoever. Why would God need to reveal Himself to himself via books? This might make sense from a Muslim perspective, which has a very different understanding of who Jesus is, but from a purely Christian perspective, the question itself is nonsense. No offense meant, but what Muslims believe has no influence or bearing on what Christians believe. At most, Christ would have recognized the Old testament, or the Torah. – David Stratton Oct 28 '14 at 4:30
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    Needless to say, Muhammad had it wrong, just as he did most other things about Christianity. The Gospel, or as the Qur'an calls it, Injil (إنجيل), isn't a book, but rather, the "good news" that Isa (Jesus) preached to the people of Israel. That's what the Gospel literally is. Yes, there are four books known each as a "gospel," but this name is given to each because each predominately contains the very gospel that Jesus preached. However, Jesus did not receive these very books from God, nor did he write them. – user900 Oct 28 '14 at 4:46
  • Matt: 4:23: And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people. – user900 Oct 28 '14 at 4:48
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    I'm not sure why this question is so poorly received. False premises, inaccuracies, etc. are all part of questioning. Questions often exist because of those. This is nearly on-topic except that it is in the form "Does this thing exist" which is typically discouraged. In this case, however, because the question is based on inaccuracies about what the average Christian believes, it's pretty easy to answer: "Most Christians do not believe that Jesus wrote anything that has been preserved through time as the rest of the New Testament has. There might be some, but I've never heard of any." – fredsbend Oct 28 '14 at 17:11
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John 1:1 says the following:

In the Beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

In Greek, that word Logos means "the Word." A common misconception that even Christians make is that the Bible is the Word of God. It is not, for as John 1:14 says:

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Put another way, Jesus did not come to bring words. Rather he was "the Word."

C.S. Lewis famously wrote it as follows:

"I am trying here to prevent anyone saying the really foolish thing that people often say about Him: I’m ready to accept Jesus as a great moral teacher, but I don’t accept his claim to be God. That is the one thing we must not say. A man who was merely a man and said the sort of things Jesus said would not be a great moral teacher. He would either be a lunatic — on the level with the man who says he is a poached egg — or else he would be the Devil of Hell. You must make your choice. Either this man was, and is, the Son of God, or else a madman or something worse. You can shut him up for a fool, you can spit at him and kill him as a demon or you can fall at his feet and call him Lord and God, but let us not come with any patronising nonsense about his being a great human teacher. He has not left that open to us. He did not intend to. ... Now it seems to me obvious that He was neither a lunatic nor a fiend: and consequently, however strange or terrifying or unlikely it may seem, I have to accept the view that He was and is God."

Christianity does not fundamentally believe that any particular teachings are divine - rather it is the Word of God that chose to save us. We believe it was God's action, not our own, that is important. When God spoke the world into existence, when he speaks his love to us in saving us from what we made, and when he will speak that one last time to bring us all home - it will be his Word, not our response to it, that is effectual.

As such, divine revelation of any "book" is irrelevant. The true Word has already been spoken.

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The question is based on a false premise according to Christians, but it still has a simple, unequivocal answer:

No.

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Your question flies in the face of Christianity in several ways.

  1. The basis for the Christian belief is that Jesus was God incarnate, and unless that is true there is no hope of salvation.

Unless Jesus is God incarnate his death and resurrection are meaningless, and man is forever lost in sin.

  1. Since Jesus is God incarnate he was an eye witness to all of the events in the old Testament, and thereby is the irrefutable authority on it.

God is not only omnipotent, but he is also omnipresent, and omniscient. What that actually means is that God.

Was as the creator the author of all happenstance not only in the past, but in the future.

Being omnipotent is the director of all events, and therefore nothing happens without his express approval.

Being omnipresent means that he observes all things simultaneously, and therefore knows and approves all events even before they happen.

Being omniscient he knows not only ..the makeup of the atom but also the limits of the Universe.

We mortals are unable to fathom the vastness of God nor can we ever hope to understand why he allows things to unfold as they do, since we are so limited in our knowledge, even though through the advances made in Science we are just now beginning to imagine things which we observe in God's heaven (or if you prefer Space).

Isaiah 55:8 and 9 "For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways," says the LORD. 9 "For as the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways, And My thoughts than your thoughts.

So in answer to your question:

The attempts to denigrate God and also Jesus is nothing new. The attempt to bring God down to a level in which his authority can be challenged, is as old as the rebellion of the angels in Heaven, and is the reason for:

Exodus 20:3 through 5 "You shall have no other gods before Me. 4 "You shall not make for yourself a carved image—any likeness of anything that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth; 5 you shall not bow down to them nor serve them. For I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children to the third and fourth generations of those who hate Me,

When God says: *For I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God * he means it!

Throughout history there have been innumerable gods from successive regimes and they have all faded from glory, and the one and only true God has remained throughout the centuries and has consistently kept his following.

So when you are confronted with diatribes such as the one you describe, please remember that throughout History false gods have used this worn out attempt to elevate themselves while demeaning the true God.

The thing that needs be noted in these attempts is that all cases they are attempting to place themselves as equal to God or Jesus. In your example even though they have asserted that Jesus was in a superior state, but they are asserting that they also occupy that elevated status.

Hope this helps.

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