I know this will be controversial, so I'm going to ask for answers to remember that the scope of this question is not "Do they have the authority to change what is morally right or wrong", it's "does the Church TEACH that it has that authority?".
This is prompted by this article, which states:
Pope Francis realises that a number of the Church's strict teachings are at odds with the lives lived by many of the faithful in the developed world.
'There's a strong sense in which on this whole question of sexuality, marriage and family, the Church stands out against contemporary mores – and some people don't like to live in that tension,' Austen Ivereigh, a Catholic journalist and author of an upcoming book on Pope Francis, called The Great Reformer tells the Financial Times. 'But what conservative cardinals are saying is that if you concede ground on this, you are conceding to the culture, and that it is a slippery slope.'
Cardinal Walter Kasper of Germany, a close ally of the Pope, has proposed allowing the divorced and remarried to take Holy Communion, something presently banned in the Church.
The Church does not recognise divorces dispensed by civil courts and thus regards people who have remarried as adulterers.
However, conservative Catholic officials are totally opposed to this move believing that it is a threat to the principle of the 'indissolubility' of marriage. U.S. Cardinal Raymond Burke, Cardinal Prefect of the Supreme Tribunal of the Apostolic Signatura, Australia's Cardinal George Pell, the current Prefect of the Secretariat for the Economy and Germany's Cardinal Gerhard Muller, the Prefect of the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, are all opposed to any change in who can take Communion.
"'indissolubility' of marriage" seems to be a moral central doctrinal principle.
So, the logic follows, if God never changes, it seems to follow that what God sees as right or wrong would never change, so is there a doctrine that allows the Church to say that something that's currently considered "wrong" at one point in time can be considered "right" at another?