Why does Paul say that a husband is "divided" between pleasing his wife and pleasing God? Can't a husband please God by pleasing his wife (or vice versa)? Or is that what Paul meant?
1 Cor. 7:32-3:
… He that is without a wife, is careful for the things that pertain to our Lord, how he may please God.
But he that is with a wife, is careful for the things that pertain to the world, how he may please his wife: and he is divided.