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Suppose that a person is faithful and counted among those in Christ, and the person is disobedient in some manner.

What is the biblical basis that God does not intervene to punish this Christian beyond the immediate natural consequences of their actions, because Christ has already borne the punishment of their transgressions?

  • Is this meant to be the counter-point to your other question? – Flimzy Aug 29 '14 at 23:07
  • Indeed. I see the questions are already linked. – Andrew Aug 29 '14 at 23:08
  • What do you mean they are linked? – Flimzy Aug 30 '14 at 0:10
  • @Flimzy On the menu on the right side of the webpage, there is a list of "linked" questions and "related" questions. "Does God punish Christians for disobedience?" appears (alone) in the "linked" list. It's probably because you pasted a link in the comment above. – Andrew Aug 30 '14 at 0:13
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    Ahh, yes, as you guessed, that's just because I mentioned it in a comment :) – Flimzy Aug 30 '14 at 0:15
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One example is Ramah, a town which Jeremiah prophetically lamented. The area was a source of great dispute between Judah and Israel. The punishment for the unwritten actions which occurred here were fulfilled in Matthew 2:17-18

17 Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying,

18 In Rama was there a voice heard, lamentation, and weeping, and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children, and would not be comforted, because they are not.

  • I think that this answer is on an interesting path. God forgives, and brings back to Israel those that sinned. The weeping will end. So natural consequences as punishment - then not further punishment but reversal and a rebuilding of the Temple. Nice. – gideon marx Aug 30 '14 at 10:56

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