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When I was young, someone told me that one of the reasons that a virgin had to give birth to Jesus was that sinful nature is inherited through the father, and so in order to be perfect, Jesus had to have a sinless father. Is this conjecture, or an actual statement in the Bible?

The way I see it, it makes sense when likened to the mother having to be Jewish for the offspring to be Jewish. On the other hand, it was Eve who committed the original sin, which doesn't make sense with this concept.

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