It is just confusing that the teachings of the Catholic church teach us that through sins (original sin committed by Adam and Eve) there comes death. Jesus died. Does it mean He had sinned?


No, Jesus did not sin. He did, however, die for the sins of the world, including mine and yours and everyone else's.

The Bible puts it this way:

"For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit . . ." (1 Peter 3:18 NASB, my emphasis).

Jesus was (and is) just. We, on the other hand, are unjust. The just one, Jesus, took the place of the unjust, us, and He endured the punishment we so justly deserved.

Mind you, there was nothing just about Jesus' arrest, conviction, and death sentence. In the plan and purpose of God, however, His death proceeded according to the plan He and His Father and the Spirit devised before the foundation of the world.

That plan involved providing a way of escape for sinners whom God loves, so they could spend eternity with Him in heaven. To be allowed into God's heaven, however, one has to be sinless. Through the death of His Son Jesus, God graciously, mercifully, and lovingly imputed Jesus' righteousness to us while at the same imputing our sins to Him. Paul puts it this way,

"He [God] made Him [Jesus] who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him" (2 Corinthians 5:21 NASB, my emphasis).

One sin, one act of disobedience, makes us unrighteous in God's sight. On the other hand, one act of obedience on Jesus' part made it possible for us to become IN JESUS the righteousness of God. What a miracle! Jesus obediently submitted to a death He did not deserve so that our justly-deserved death sentence could be commuted. Our pardon for sin was signed in blood, the blood of God's Lamb, Jesus, who took away the sin of the world (see John 1:29 and 36).

In other words, by imputing our unrighteousness to Jesus on the cross, God made it possible for Jesus' righteousness to be imputed to us.

The result of this "double imputation" is that you and I can be justified in God's sight if we simply put our faith in Jesus, believing in our hearts that He died FOR US. Think of being "justified" in God's sight as being "declared righteous" in God's sight.

God, however, does not force on us His gifts of forgiveness and eternal life. That is why we must individually cry out to Him in faith to save us. When we simply take Him at His word, believing that He forgives us and welcomes us into His forever family, we are then assured He will do as He promised.

"'All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out'" (John 6:37 NASB).

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  • I think I found the answer here. Great. – Ragnarok May 27 '14 at 3:32
  • Does 2 Corinthians 5: 21 not actually mean that Jesus sinned and that God had to forgive him and through that had to forgive all sins? I think that verse has too much room for interpretation to be used to answer this specific question. I'm sure you can come up with something a bit more solid. – gideon marx May 27 '14 at 9:38
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    @gideonmarx: A thousand times no! Jesus no more sinned than did the sacrificial animals in the First Covenant cultus! Remember, the bulls, goats, lambs, & turtledoves were innocent, yet they "bore" the sins of many. Only an infinitely holy lamb, the Lamb of God, could bear away the sins of the world. The infinite and unbridgeable chasm between God and man was bridged through the cross of Christ, where Jesus was punished, not for His own sins, but for my sins and yours. His was the atoning sacrifice. He was God's wrath-bearer, though He knew no sin. For your edification, re-read Isaiah 53:4 ff. – rhetorician May 28 '14 at 2:40

Scripture is clear about whether Jesus sinned:

Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has ascended into heaven, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to the faith we profess. For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are - yet he did not sin. (Hebrews 4:14-15)

The Catholic church errs when they teach that anyone dies for original sin. The entire 18th chapter of Ezekiel covers this idea: The one who sins is the one who will die. (v 20). Nobody died for Adam's sin but Adam.

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  • do you mean before Adam sinned, there was already death? Because we did not acquire death from sin? – Ragnarok May 28 '14 at 0:55
  • There is nothing in the Bible to indicate that the death of animals, or pain of any kind, is the result of Adam's sin. Death must have existed prior to Adam's sin. Birds eat insects, for example. That kind of death didn't come from some massive transformation of bird anatomy...it existed prior to Adam's sin. – GodWords May 28 '14 at 22:55
  • There is a difference between dying for Adam's sin and dying because of Adam's sin. Many Christians do believe that animals die because of Adam's sin... Romans 5 says that death entered the world through Adam. As to insects... to the Jews they may not have been considered alive, because life is associated with blood. In the Jewish mindset both plants and insects wouldn't have been considered alive, so therefore they couldn't die either. – curiousdannii Jun 2 '14 at 6:03
  • @curiousdannii: Wolves (for example) are carnivores. Those who suggest that the pre-fall earth had no death in it must also say that wolves were herbivores before Adam and Eve sinned. They must then also say that God re-created wolves to change their bodies...give them different teeth, different instincts, a different digestive system, and so on. I find that impossible to support with Scripture or logic. – GodWords Jan 1 '15 at 19:37
  • @GodWords No one can say what the extent of the modifications accompanying the curse were. It may be a cop out, but if plants got thorns then some animals could've got sharper teeth. Or their teeth could've been used for eating other vegetation, such as the Panda, which has teeth very similar to those of the bear. – curiousdannii Jan 1 '15 at 22:52

Good question. Your asking about how the ransom works, and how we are paid up on sin's debt upon death.

Jesus' death was unjust, literally, influencing the scales in terms of divine law. Hence he paid a fee though not in debt.

To be metaphorical -

  • If you have $1, you get to live.
  • Sin = a debt of $1. Now you have to die.
  • If you lose your dollar, you die eventually.
  • Your debt = $0 after death.
  • Jesus died sinless. He keeps his $1.
  • You become 1 with Christ and his followers, he gives you $1. Because Jesus and his followers represent 1 person, everyone benefits from the same $1.
  • Now you have $2. When you should die, you still have $1, and thus your debt is paid.

Its the get out of jail free card! You still have a dollar.

So yes, Jesus died without sin, which was the whole point of the ransom which results in our saving via a debt being paid off (the debt of sin, which by the way is far more expensive than $1)

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  • I believe that when one is sinless, he has no capability to die. Like Mary. – Ragnarok May 27 '14 at 3:11
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    Why do you think Mary was sinless? Sin is passed on through the man (not the woman) hence there was no imperfection in Jesus because there was no sinful father who impregnated Mary. – user9485 May 27 '14 at 3:14
  • @Ragnarok That doesn't make any sense. Animals are sinless and die all the time! – curiousdannii May 27 '14 at 3:17
  • The church teaches us that Mary was conceived with out sin that is why she did not die she was then assumed into heaven for that state with out sin. And how come sin is heredited through man only? – Ragnarok May 27 '14 at 3:19
  • Churches teach different things...but the ransom only works one way. I suppose some people have to start cracking the books (or one, book, anyway) :D Regarding your question "And how come sin is heredited through man only?" that may be on stackexchange or you could ask. – user9485 May 27 '14 at 3:24

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