The Bible it talks of Jesus being one with the Father in scriptures like John 10:30 and 1 Jn. 5:7 but also says that we should be one with them as in John 17:11 and Rom. 12:5. If we look at the Bible's original Greek or Hebrew text, is the same word used for both, or is the word that describes our oneness with them different?

The scriptures that speak of our heavenly Father and Jesus as being one are often used to prove the doctrine of the Trinity which would be in conflict with the latter scriptures because we are not physically part of the Trinity. (The Trinity being of one nature and one substance.) Does the original Greek or Hebrew word denote a physical oneness in substance, or a oneness in unity, purpose, action, and nature?

Here is a list of other scriptures that speak of the oneness being discussed.

Other Scriptures Unity
Other Scriptures One

  • You ask, "...substance...or...nature?" Aren't those basically the same?
    – user900
    Jan 16, 2014 at 6:20
  • And what is "oneness in unity"? Jan 16, 2014 at 15:17
  • @H3br3wHamm3r81 Lds theology believes that they are three separate and distinct beings but unified in purpose and nature. The doctrine of the Trinity states that Jesus was begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father and one nature. Therefor not separate and distinct but one physical Being. I just want to narrow down the evidences if the Bible speaks of a more physical oneness or a oneness in purpose and nature.
    – Nelson
    Jan 16, 2014 at 15:23

1 Answer 1


Regarding the Greek, in all four verses that you cite, the same Greek word is used for "one" -- the Greek word "en".

Of itself that doesn't prove much. In Greek, as in English, you can use a word to have different shades of meaning in different contexts, and two words can be synonyms.

One of the verses that you cite, John 17:11, says, "that they may be one as We are", which would pretty clearly indicate that the oneness of the church is in some way the same as the oneness of the Father and Son. One could debate whether this means that the oneness of the church is exactly the same thing as the Trinity, that it is comparable as a analogy but not the same thing, or that here Jesus is talking about a unity between himself and the Father that is not the same as the unity of the Trinity.

To the best of my knowledge, Scripture does not give a definitive answer to this question. Happy to hear if somebody else can point to verses that could clarify.

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