When I am discussing the Bible and I use the Old Testament, often I am told that that portion does not apply to us because it is addressed to the Jews. By the time I am finished with my discussion I may as well go through the Bible and cut out all the scriptures that are to the Jews. I am told that I must read the context. If this is true then it seems that I have very little to support many of my understandings of Scripture. I cannot even use the words of Jesus because he lived and spoke during the time of the law and not grace. Can you help me with this. Thanks!


2 Answers 2


The context of the New Testament is the primarily the Old Testament. Everything else is secondary. Jesus Christ studied and lived according to the Old Testament. Jesus said in Matthew 4: 19, 'Follow me . . .' No Christian can get away from those words. What Jesus attacked was not the Old Testament but interpretation of the law especially by the Pharisees. There are modern 'Pharisees' as well. (It sounds as if you are being bullied. Don't stand for it. Study, think, and judge for yourself. It is your soul.)


Whomever is saying that the Old Testament is no longer applicable is totally in error.

Jesus himself said:

Matthew 5:18 KJV

For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Luke 16:17 KJV

And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.

When will it ever come that Murder will no longer be against God's law, or any of the other nine commandments.

If you search the scriptures you will find that all of the other Old Testament and New Testament is either an extension or in some way a description of those ten Commandments.

Jesus also said;

Matthew 5:17

Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill.

This statement shows the basis of his ability to forgive sin, in that:

  1. No ordinary man could fulfill the Law, because he could not negate all the times that man had broken God's laws.

  2. Only a man who had never broken the Law of God (disobeyed) could cause them to be forgiven.

Jesus did not do away with the Law, or even do away with the fact that:

Romans 3:23 KJV

For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

When the end comes it will be the Law (as described in the Old Testament) by which we will all be judged, both the saved and unsaved.

Romans 2:12 KJV

For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;

The difference will be that the saved will be judged innocent because of the sacrifice of Jesus, and that judgment will determine their rewards, while the unsaved will be judged as to whether they ever broke the Law or not and those found guilty (which is all of them) will be cast into the lake of fire, to burn for eternity.


You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .