I have never read in the bible whether eating of unclean meat as described in the Old Testament where it is allowed to eat "unclean meat" or unclean meat is now clean meat.

Except for one vision from Peter where the vision orders him to "eat unclean meat" however, this is clearly not literal as the context is for Peter to preach unto the Gentiles:

Acts 10:

17 While Peter was wondering about the meaning of the vision, the men sent by Cornelius found out where Simon’s house was and stopped at the gate. 
18 They called out, asking if Simon who was known as Peter was staying there.

22 The men replied, “We have come from Cornelius the centurion. He is a righteous and God-fearing man, who is respected by all the Jewish people. A holy angel told him to ask you to come to his house so that he could hear what you have to say.”
23 Then Peter invited the men into the house to be his guests.

Other verses in the bible tells "all foods are clean" however we should take note that it says nothing about "all meats are clean", food is totally different word from meat.

Was the vision literal or not? If its literal what is the biblical proof? Why are people lead into concluding that this vision is to be taken literally?

  • I could be wrong but I sense a very interesting question that is not a duplicate at all but highly technical. Can you please rephrase your question and ask it again. I would be very curious to hear the answer. As to Acts 10. Did you notice that Peter did not eat even though he was hungry. – gideon marx Oct 10 '13 at 19:02
  • @gideonmarx I agree. And would be willing to answer if given the chance. It seems like a specific question and not a duplicate. – jlaverde Oct 11 '13 at 12:23

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