What is the Roman Catholic position on the validity of the marriage between an infertile man and infertile woman? Also, from this standpoint, what is the difference between a marriage in which both partners are opposing sexes but infertile and a marriage in which both partners are the same sex?

  • 2
    Can you scope your question a little to a specific denomination? This question, I believe, is asking for personal opinion. That, or it's a "truth" question.
    – Double U
    Commented Aug 7, 2013 at 22:04
  • 2
    As anonymous says you've got to scope this a bit more. Christianity is not monolithic and there may not be one specific reason for this. You'll need to tighten this up to either speak to a specific group or doctrine. Essentially, this question shows a lack of any attempt to learn the answer before asking.
    – wax eagle
    Commented Aug 7, 2013 at 23:13
  • 1
    @waxeagle My question is now more cleared up and is more specific to one denomination.
    – kyle k
    Commented Aug 8, 2013 at 2:43
  • @Anonymous: Isn't this version of the question a duplicate of How does a Roman Catholic reconcile a preference for purely procreative sex with the Song of Solomon? Commented Aug 8, 2013 at 5:35
  • 5
    Your secondary question about same-sex marriage falsely assumes that the reason why the Church considers it a sin is because they cannot conceive. Commented Aug 8, 2013 at 13:32

1 Answer 1


I assume you are asking about the validity of a marriage between people who cannot conceive children. The position is summed up in this paper. To summarize:

Infertility does not prevent a person from validly entering into marriage. The Code of Canon Law affirms, “Sterility neither prohibits nor invalidates marriage” (No. 1084.3). Appreciating the suffering of an infertile couple, the Catechism states, “Spouses to whom God has not granted children can nevertheless have a conjugal life full of meaning, in both human and Christian terms. Their marriage can radiate a fruitfulness of charity, of hospitality, and of sacrifice” (No. 1654). In this case, a couple can consummate the marriage, but they just cannot conceive children.

Your last point, about marriage between partners of the same sex, is an entirely different question and I suggest you ask it separately.

  • 5
    I would add that the couple should still have an openness to children because doctors can be wrong and God can work miracles.
    – brader24
    Commented Aug 8, 2013 at 11:53
  • Indeed it is the requirement for openness to children that people often confuse with a requirement to have children in Catholicism. Just because you are open to children doesn't mean God will necessarily cause you to have them. Commented Jan 7, 2015 at 8:31

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .