Setting aside marriages of couples from two different Christian denominations, what passages in the New Testament prohibit a Christian from marrying a non-Christian?

I believe that the Old Testament prohibits Jews from marrying non-Jews, but I am interested in answers relating to Christians specifically.

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    The duplicate someone suggested in the close vote is a very different topic. Inter-racial != inter-faith. – Caleb Sep 1 '11 at 13:20
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    I looked at the inter-racial question before posting this, and yes, my focus is very different. – Beofett Sep 1 '11 at 13:21
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    Seems rather bizarre that almost 5 years later, this gets closed as "opinion based"... when it was, both before and after the edit, looking for sources from the bible. I guess the bible is now considered opinion? – Beofett Apr 25 '16 at 12:22
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    If you have questions or concerns about question closure you should raise them on meta. That being said your comment is on the wrong track and at least partially addressed in this meta post. Yes questions about the Bible are considered opinion based and yes a lot of questions from '11 before we figured that out are getting closed. That's fine and normal. – Caleb Apr 25 '16 at 12:29
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    I'm not sure why I didn't leave a little explanation in the edit summary, but at any rate, it's now been reopened. :) I could see a "what's the Lutheran stance on inter-faith marriages" question being successful too though. Could be a useful complement to this one. – Mr. Bultitude Apr 27 '16 at 16:54
up vote 9 down vote accepted

2 Corinthians 6:14-18 is generally cited in such cases:

Do not be bound together with unbelievers; for what partnership have righteousness and lawlessness, or what fellowship has light with darkness? Or what harmony has Christ with Belial, or what has a believer in common with an unbeliever? Or what agreement has the temple of God with idols? For we are the temple of the living God; just as God said,

And I will welcome you.
"And I will be a father to you,
And you shall be sons and daughters to Me,"
Says the Lord Almighty.

If one member of an "interfaith" marriage were to be saved after getting married, then it would be that spouse's duty to continue to witness to their unbelieving mate:

1 Corinthians 7:12b-16:

that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he must not divorce her. And a woman who has an unbelieving husband, and he consents to live with her, she must not send her husband away. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified through his wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified through her believing husband; for otherwise your children are unclean, but now they are holy. Yet if the unbelieving one leaves, let him leave; the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such cases, but God has called us to peace. For how do you know, O wife, whether you will save your husband? Or how do you know, O husband, whether you will save your wife?

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    @Beofett: I think (and I think warren is saying) that 1 Cor 7:12-16 is meant to apply to a couple that gets married, then later one of them becomes a Christian. – Flimzy Sep 1 '11 at 13:43
  • @Flimzy ah, that makes much more sense then. – Beofett Sep 1 '11 at 13:44
  • @Flimzy - that is correct :) - "were to be saved after getting married" – warren Sep 1 '11 at 13:46

2 Corinthians 6:14-15 is often understood to prohibit the marriage of Christians with non-Christians:

Do not be yoked together with unbelievers. For what do righteousness and wickedness have in common? Or what fellowship can light have with darkness? What harmony is there between Christ and Belial? Or what does a believer have in common with an unbeliever?

A verse which is used widely is 1 Corinthians 7:39

A woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to marry anyone she wishes, but he must belong to the Lord.

This verse talks for a woman who wish to get married again but the principle is the same for anyone. "Belong to the Lord" means to be a Christian.

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