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Is there anything amiss with the following argument?

  1. Jesus is the Word of God (Jesus is the Logos)
  2. Jesus spoke words
  3. Jesus is God
  4. The words that Jesus spoke are the words of God
  5. The words of Jesus are the Logos

In particular, if a person were to insist that "Word" is used in the same way that it is used in "I will send word to you", is it possible to decisively correct this person using only scripture? If not, then does scripture suggest that the words of Jesus really are the Logos?

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Yes, there is something amiss. The Word of God (ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ) who became flesh and dwelt among us (John 1:14) is enhypostatic, that is, He possesses a hypostasis and personality. However, the words of God which the Word of God spoke are anhypostatic, just like the words you and I speak. The apostles worshipped Jesus, the enhypostatic word of God, but they did not worship the anhypostatic words which he spoke.

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