The Catholic prayer referred to as a "Hail Mary" ascribes the phrase "full of grace" to Mary. The Scriptures describe both Jesus and Stephen as being "full of grace". In Greek, this is "πλήρης χάριτος".

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14 ESV

And Stephen, full of grace and power, was doing great wonders and signs among the people. Acts 6:8 ESV

However, there doesn't seem to be any place where the Bible describes Mary in this way. The only place that is close is in Luke 1:28 where the angel greets Mary and indicates that she has been given grace, often translated as "highly favored" (κεχαριτωμένη in Greek).

So, certainly Jesus was "full of grace" and Stephen was identified as being "full of grace". Yet, why does Mary also receive this ascription?

  • 1
    The Bible I use (RSV-CE) has "Hail, full of grace" for Luke 1:28. So there is precedent in translation. Commented Jan 28, 2013 at 19:06
  • 1
    @AndrewLeach Interesting... the Greek word really does not translate to that at all.
    – Narnian
    Commented Jan 28, 2013 at 19:10

3 Answers 3


The English translation of "full of grace" is derived from St. Jerome's Vulgate, the Latin translation of Luke 1:28 wherein we find the phrase gratiā plenă, which translates into English as "full of grace."

Gratiā is a noun in the ablative case ("ablative of plenty"), singular number, meaning "of grace," and plenă is an adjective in the nominative case, feminine gender, and singular number, meaning "filled" or "full," modifying Mary (a female).

  • So, this is a translation of a translation?
    – Narnian
    Commented Jan 28, 2013 at 22:15
  • 1
    As the Latin Vulgate is a translation of the Greek manuscripts of the NT which Jerome had in his possession to produce the Vulgate, and the English phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Latin phrase gratia plena, then yes, you are correct. Now, "translations of translations" aren't necessarily erroneous just because they are translations of translations. Otherwise, every English translation would be erroneous. I would recommend studying the original Greek word, and if the Latin does not sync, well, then dismiss the Latin. It is true that Jerome did not always stay true to the Greek.
    – user900
    Commented Jan 28, 2013 at 22:21
  • So then the question becomes, why did the Vulgate translate it that way? Commented Dec 5, 2021 at 7:11

"Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you," is an appropriate translation of the Greek at Luke 1:28, which reads

και εισελθων ο αγγελος προς αυτην ειπεν χαιρε κεχαριτωμενη ο κυριος μετα σου ευλογημενη συ εν γυναιξιν.

(Scrivener 1894 Greek NT)

The key phrase in that passage is "Chaîre, kecharitōménē, ho Kýrios metà soû." (NOTE: I am transliterating the Greek to its English equivalent.) Kecharitōménē is a hapax legomenon (literally a word or phrase that is "expressed once" in all known Greek literature).

Kecharitōménē is the verb χαριτόω (charitóō) rendered in the perfect participle passive. In researching the word, I learned that the perfect participle passive describes a state that exists at the time coincident with that of the leading verb as a result of action completed prior to the time of the main verb. See, http://www.ntgreek.net/lesson34.htm. Thus, one could translate "Chaîre, kecharitōménē, ho Kýrios metà soû" in English as "Rejoice, you who have been, and are, filled with grace, the Lord is with you." "Grace" here would refer to God's grace of salvation.

This word is important in understanding Catholic doctrine and dogma related to Mary. Reading this passage in the four senses of Scripture [literal, allegorical, moral (aka tropological), and anagogical] gives some good insights into the thinking leading to the Catholic Marian doctrines.

  • 1
    ""Chaîre, kecharitōménē, ho Kýrios metà soû." (NOTE: I am transliterating the Greek to its English equivalent.)" I think you mean you're transliterating the Greek alphabet letters to Roman alphabet letters, because I see no English there. Commented Dec 5, 2021 at 7:08

Actually, "full of grace" is not a very good translation of χαριτόω because, given the Roman Catholic dogmas concerning Mary, it could be used to suggest that Mary is a source of grace, rather than a recipient like you and me. The truth is that this same term is used in Ephesians 1:6 where it describes those who, by God's grace, have been "made accepted (χαριτόω) in the beloved." Thus, it would be a perfectly good and superior translation of Luke 1:28 to say: "Rejoice, thou which hast been made accepted, the Lord is with thee; blessed art thou among women!"

  • Welcome to Christianity SE and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the tour to understand how the site works and how it is different than others.
    – agarza
    Commented Dec 5, 2021 at 2:08
  • 2
    Is κεχαριτωμένη synonymous with πλήρης χάριτος? Actually it is a good translation. Catholics do not imply Mary is the source of grace in any of their dogmas.
    – Ken Graham
    Commented Dec 6, 2021 at 0:10
  • "It's a bad translation because it doesn't fit my denominational beliefs" is disingenuous. It's a bad translation if it does not convey the meaning intended by the original author in the original language. The goodness of a translation has nothing to do with whether you like the implication or not.
    – jaredad7
    Commented Dec 6, 2021 at 15:09

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .