Jesus Christ received the Holy Spirit when he was 30 years old. Wasn't that supposed to take place much earlier?
closed as unclear what you're asking by Nathaniel is protesting, Mr. Bultitude, El'endia Starman♦ Aug 29 '15 at 2:44
Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
There are a few angles to answer your question from.
First the Eternal Son of God, who existed before being incarnated into a baby child through a virgin can never be said to not have the Spirit for the Trinity if One God, Father, Son and Spirit. This is the basic view of God within Christianity.
Second, when the Eternal Son was incarnated the human nature that he incorporated into his person could never be said to not have the Spirit for the Divine nature and the Human nature are inseparable in his person forever.
Third, as a man Jesus needed additional supplies of the Spirit to resist sin and to obey all that his Father has given to him to do. In this sense of ‘needing’ the Spirit to live a holy life as a man in communion with his Father he must have to be fully human. We can see even in what little record we have of Jesus as a child where the Spirit was mighty in him. In Luke 2 Jesus was separated from his parents and was later found engaging the teachers in the temple courts. When they rebuked him for getting lost while they were worried he said “Didn’t you know I had to be in my Father’s house?”. This implies at an early age he was already deeply aware of his fellowship with the Father which is by the Spirit. It is then added that:
And Jesus grew in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and man. (Luke 2:52, NIV)
This obviously implies that the Spirit of God was causing the boy Jesus to develop in ‘spiritual’ wisdom, not just the human kind, meaning the Spirit was deep at work within him.
It is from this third aspect that your question is based and the answer is simple. Of course Jesus as a man always had supplies of grace from the Spirit and communed with his Father, but it was not until his official ministry in preaching the gospel was inaugurated that he received the Spirit in an extra and unusual manner in order for him to perform his earthly ministry.
This is not only true of Christ but of all Christians that ‘receive the Spirit’. It is not something that happens once but over and over again and our needs require and God’s grace supplies.
As you have rightly mentioned in the comments, Jesus was conceived of the Holy Spirit and so was John the baptist. They were filled with the Holy Spirit from their mothers' womb
And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God
As I understand it, the Spirit came on Jesus not to fill him but to reveal him to John
32 And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.
33 And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.
And for the baptism - to fulfill all righteousness. If Jesus did not do it, I think baptism in Christianity would have been history
15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.