Referencing one or more passage of scripture, and any seconday external sources, what is the supportable, Biblical basis for the doctrine of the innerrancy of the Bible?
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1Related: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/30373/… and christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/17807/…– James SheweyOct 17, 2014 at 17:14
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1 Answer
Off the top of my head the two verses that come to mind is 2 Tim 3:16(NIV)
"All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness"
So it's clear that scripture is what God said and God cannot lie.
Hebrews 6:18 says
"That by two immutable things, in which it was impossible for God to lie, ..."
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1Off topic for the question asked but related to my answer, I'd like to say that (apart from the fact it is out of God's character to do wrong) one of the reasons God cannot lie is because his very words are creative. He spoke reality into existence and whatever he says becomes truth.– 2tim424Aug 30, 2011 at 23:53