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https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/40402/does-quran-548-imply-that-allah-wants-jews-to-follow-the-torah-and-christians

This post suggests that the given verses in the quran that seemingly show that the gospel is not corrupted actually point to the word given by Jesus and not the current new testament

But quran 5:47 states this ""So let the people of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed in it. And those who do not judge by what Allah has revealed are ˹truly˺ the rebellious.""

It says that at the time of the prophet , the people of the gospel are to judge by the gospel, but the gospel at the time of the prophet was the more or less the current 4 canonical gospels of the new testament . Is this a wrong reading of the Arabic of the text( as gospel in arabic might more directly related it to the words of Jesus) or does the op make a mistake?

I ask this in this exchange because Christians would have a better and less biased understanding of what exactly the gospels indicate here( even tho it's from the islamic pov)

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  • I'm having difficulty understanding what you are asking. The only explicit question is "Is this a wrong reading of the Arabic of the text… or does the op make a mistake?", and if that's all you're asking, it doesn't belong on this site. And even if it did belong here, I've no idea what the difference is between "wrong reading" and "mistake". ¶ The "…" part says "as gospel in arabic might more directly related it to the words of Jesus", but the words "word" and "Jesus" don't even appear in the other post, so I've no idea what you are referring to. Commented Oct 30 at 21:27
  • Please review What types of questions can I ask on this site? While we do allow for comparative religion questions from the perspective of Christianity, like Ray, I don't understand what you're trying to ask here.
    – curiousdannii
    Commented Oct 30 at 21:39
  • @RayButterworth I'm asking that if the muslims believe the gospels of Jesus are not the current nt, why does the quran ask the Christians to follow the gospels at the time of the prophet muhammad
    – Tahir
    Commented Oct 31 at 9:47
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    @Tahir says "I'm asking that if the muslims … why does the quran …?" — Any question like that obviously isn't a question about Christianity and doesn't belong here. Commented Oct 31 at 12:27

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To answer, this scholar's explanation of the Islamic view should be helpful.

"The writings of the Old Testament, the Gospels and the Epistles, all represent vicarious experiences retold at second, third, or fourth hand by their authors with an additional reworking by redactors and editors. Within the New Testament are four Gospels, utterly incomprehensible to Muslims, since the Gospel entrusted by God to Jesus was reputedly a single Book. The conclusion derived by Muslims is that because there are four, none of them are valid or reliable. In fact, the popular Islamic explanation is that the early Christian community lost the original Gospel received from Jesus and set about to make good the deficiency, by substituting for one sequential account an intricately woven fabric of writings and traditions of many periods and different generations. Thus, according to Muslims, the teachings of Jesus might now be irretrievably lost to posterity were it not that their substance is reserved in the Qur'an." Islam: the way of submission Solomon Nigosian (Crucible, 1987) last chapter, 'Islamic Understanding of Christianity' [Emphasis mine].

That is truly surprising, given that there are only 25 verses in the entire Qur'an that speak of Jesus! The scholar goes on:

"Where there are differences or discrepancies between the biblical and Qur'anic accounts, Muslims explain the biblical record as some form of corruption. There is no better evidence of this than the words of the eminent twentieth-century scholar Sayyid Amir Ali:

'It is an article of faith among Muslims of all shades of opinion that the Christian Gospels in their present shape give an imperfect and erroneous view of the life and preachings of Jesus, and that his sayings have been garbled and tampered with according to the idiosyncracies of individual compilers or the environments of the times and the requirements of factions and sects.' A. Ali, Christianity from the Islamic Standpoint, Hibbert Journal, Vol.iv, no.2 (Jan. 1906)

"...Muslims argue that Christians and Jews were not fit custodians of their own Holy Books and that they tampered with them in various ways, particularly by suppressing or obscuring what otherwise would have confirmed Islam and the true nature and identity of the Qur'an. Stated differently, the Islamic view is that the content of Christian Scriptures does not match the content of the Qur'an; in their original form they did match. The original form is irrecoverable and corruption has occurred in the present versions." op. cit. Solomon Nigosian p.195

That seems to make it perfectly clear, that the four gospel accounts in the Christian New Testament are disregarded and dismissed by Muslims as a fabrication, totally departed from the origin gospel which Islam claims came with Jesus - but is now lost. That also explains why Christians do not follow what Islam claims to be 'the gospel'.

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  • I heard an old, old story: "The gospels have been corrupted or are incomplete in some fashion and would have been lost forever had we not received the corrective revelation". All of the false religions are thus to one degree or another. Good answer.+1 Commented Oct 30 at 21:50
  • if the muslims believe the gospels of Jesus are not the current nt, why does the quran ask the Christians to follow the gospels at the time of the prophet muhammad
    – Tahir
    Commented Oct 31 at 9:48
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    @Tahir Simply because, at that time, Muhammad had recited the Qur'an, which claimed to be the fount of all true knowledge of God. The few verses in it, about Jesus, were mainly denials of Christian beliefs about Jesus. That, alone, proves that the Christian gospel was already at odds with the Islamic understanding of the gospel.
    – Anne
    Commented Oct 31 at 9:55

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