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I understand that most scholars think that book of Daniel is a forgery and definitely not written in the 6th century BC and not written by Daniel.

What strikes me is why Christians traditionally think that the book was written by Daniel ? In the book itself, first 1-6 chapters, it's written in 3rd person and not 1st which definitely don't mean at all that book was written by Daniel. For sure, 7-12 sometimes talk about in 1st person but what solid argument does this give that book was written by Daniel ?

Would you be able to shed lights about why Christians think that it was written by Daniel ? what's their reasoning ?

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    What strikes me is that you do not know your history and even ask a question like this. A "forgery" of what? Do you think that recorded Hebrew history, which is largely what the bible contains, is a fraud? First get the facts, then rephrase the question in an appropriate way supported by referencing.
    – adam
    Commented Sep 17 at 18:49
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    Given this question appears to attack the bible cannon, I'm supposing you are also putting forward the notion the book can't have been written prior to the fall of the Roman Empire? (Because it predicts Rome would come after Greece, then the feet and toes of mixed iron and clay)
    – adam
    Commented Sep 17 at 19:09
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    Finally, I should raise my own question here...we're there not a number of copies of the complete book Daniel in the Dead Sea Scrolls?
    – adam
    Commented Sep 17 at 19:21
  • It is quite common for an author to write of themselves in the third person for part or all of their autobiography. The first part of Daniel is a history written in the third person. The majority of the book is in the first person and expresses, intimately, the visions he saw.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Sep 17 at 21:05
  • This question is duplicated on SE-BH.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Sep 17 at 21:06

1 Answer 1

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Regarding the second half of the book: The 1st person sections (ch.7-12) internally claim to be written by Daniel in fully 18 separate verses. We believe that the author is being honest about his identity.

Ancient Christians and Jews were certainly not unaware of the existence of forgeries and people writing under a false name, but they decided to include the book of Daniel in the canon while rejecting many other books which claimed authorship by prophets and patriarchs. Therefore, they must have had some reason to believe that the book of Daniel is genuine; it's quite possible that the decision to canonize the book was made while Daniel was still around, in which case verifying authorship would have been easy. In any case, there is a very old tradition that the book is not a forgery.

The reason why Christians continue to identify the book's author with Daniel (at least for the last six chapters) is that conservative Christians tend to value tradition over modern scholarship, especially when the modern scholarship is working on scanty evidence. The ones who decided to include the book in the Bible must have had some evidence for doing so, even if we don't know what that evidence was.

The evidence for the late composition date of the second half of Daniel comes largely from the fact that it appears to contain accurate prophecies of historical events from Alexander the Great until Antiochus IV Epiphanes's desecration of the temple in 167 BC, but not about Epiphanes's death; therefore scholars conclude that these passages were written during Antiochus Epiphanes's lifetime.

Note that this logic assumes that predictive prophecy is not possible, an assumption which Christians reject. Without making that assumption, the evidence for a late composition date becomes very paltry. It is not reduced to nothing but it becomes small enough that the evidence of a very old tradition is sufficient for most Christians to follow the traditional view.

Regarding the first half of the book: The idea that the book as a whole was composed by Daniel comes from the assumption that it is written by a single author. There isn't really a reason a priori to suspect that ch.1-6 are written by the same author as ch.7-12, but the ancient readers generally made the assumption of a single author for any book, unless there was a very compelling reason to suppose otherwise. For example, the anonymous Psalms would often be attributed to David (who authored almost all the Psalms that have an attribution); a tradition which the Bible itself follows in Acts 4:25.

Of course, it would not threaten the integrity of the book to suppose that ch.1-6 were written by somebody else. But there is no great reason for doing so, and it appears like ch.7-12 were added later, which implies that at the very least Daniel read and approved the first half (assuming that the later chapters were, in fact, written by Daniel).

The testimony of Jesus: For Christians, we also have the evidence that Jesus believed the book to be genuinely prophetic (he cites it Matt. 24:15 and Matt.26:64), and we believe that Jesus is omniscient.

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  • How would you explain the use of old Persian in one the copies of the book in dead sea scrolls. For example, the word ashpenaz wasn't even understood until 20th century. If Daniel was written in 167, how do would you explain its writer not confusing Asphenaz for an inkeeper? Lookup Dr Robert D Wilson on this topic (International Standard Bible Encylcopedia)
    – adam
    Commented Sep 17 at 19:27
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    I didn't say it was written in 167; I agree with the traditional opinion. I was simply presenting the case of the secular scholars. Commented Sep 17 at 19:55

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