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Several Christian Bible scholars / theologians, for various reasons, want to interpret the flood in Genesis 6-9 as "not global" (see various interpretation). Those who believe there was a historical but regional/local flood would also supply various ways to reconcile what the text is saying and the fact of that flood, to come up with the theological message that remains true for us today. That is, the telling in Genesis 6-9 was meant to be primarily a theological story of God's covenant with humanity regardless whether the description it provides (as details in the story) was scientifically and historically accurate.

One of those ways (i.e. NOT the only way, see Note below) is to say that the author was using the Ancient Near East hyperbole literary technique we see in common use in contemporaneous non-Biblical texts. Examples of 21st century support for this way of interpretation:

But in at least 2 places there is reference to everyone except 8 who are destroyed:

Gen 6:17:

"Understand that I am bringing a flood—floodwaters on the earth to destroy every creature under heaven with the breath of life in it. Everything on earth will perish.

and in 2 Peter 2:5:

... and if he didn’t spare the ancient world, but protected Noah, a preacher of righteousness, and seven others, when he brought the flood on the world of the ungodly; ...

But with the flood being regional rather than global:

  • It seems God was not telling the truth in Gen 6:17.
  • The implication that only 8 people were alive in 2 Peter 2:5 would not be true either.
  • Consequently, we may have a problem with Biblical inerrancy.
  • The typology that salvation is only for those in Noah's Ark (as place of safety) may not work either.

How do proponents of Noah's flood as historical but not-global where not everyone died, solve the above problem?


Note: (thanks to @TheodoreReinJedlicka)

  1. Not all local flood proponents may agree with scientific consensus, and still hold to a local flood.
  2. Several local flood proponents may not believe the account to be hyperbolic.
  3. There is an ontological difference between saying that the flood is a hyperbolic story, versus saying that the story is told using hyperbolic language typical of the ancient world to communicate both historical and spiritual truth. Two very different positions –

I don't want scientific consensus and the various ways to tell about the historical local flood to cloud this question. What matters is simply this: not every human died in that historical local flood.

A related point is that there is a high probability that the historical local flood didn't affect several pre-historic human settlements far away from the Mediterranean, such as the aboriginal Australia or ancient China. If we find ungodly people in those areas were not killed by God's action in that flood, would we have a problem? I understand that an answer can be limited to hermeneutical analysis, but when integrating that interpretation to theology (this is a question to C.SE rather than to BH.SE) we want to at least address this anthropology / archaeology angle.

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    IMNSHO this is unanswerable. Since the Covenant is not only with humans, but with animals, the only flood that could cause "every creature [to] be wiped out by floodwaters" is global. We know because we find animal fossils globally. If we limit the text to mean "every creature" in some area, then many, many local floods contradict God's Promise.
    – Matthew
    Commented Oct 16 at 19:36
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    @Matthew I changed the question, hopefully this one is not a duplicate. Commented Oct 16 at 20:43
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    There are some problems with your question in terms of how you frame the local flood interpretation of Genesis. The advent of the interpretation that a local flood occurred predates scientific developments. Not all local flood proponents may agree with scientific consensus, and still hold to a local flood. Other local flood proponents may not believe the account to be hyperbolic. The way your question is written in its current form presupposes these distinctions, and I would say straw mans the position, making it harder to answer properly. Commented Oct 17 at 14:39
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    @TheodoreReinJedlicka The two resources I provided represent the more famous proposal for re-interpretarion. I suggest reading the resources to find out what "hyperbolic" means (a literary style). Feel free to suggest changes in the comment or answer the question in your own way, and if it makes sense I'll modify the question to match. I intend to be broad in characterizing the new interpretation, as long as it is "not global". Commented Oct 17 at 18:16
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    @GratefulDisciple thank you for your clarification. I would suggest that there is an ontological difference between saying that the flood is a hyperbolic story, versus saying that the story is told using hyperbolic language typical of the ancient world to communicate both historical and spiritual truth. Two very different positions Commented Oct 18 at 13:41

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Was the Flood Local or Global? The scope of the flood

While this question may seem innocuous and obvious to modern readers, there is a problem inherent with how we even phrase this question. Modern people read this question and instantly are thinking about scientific things. They want to measure the flood and its impact, they want to describe the flood in terms of geological phenomenon, its geographical extent, its effects on biology, and its meteorological processes.

The problem with this kind of thinking is that in the original story these elements are mere details in the background, the story itself presents the flood as a literal historic event that is presupposed, while the narrative is much more concerned and centered upon the impact the flood has on humanity, and God's redemptive act through Noah. The details are foregone conclusions. This leaves modern readers to adjust the background details to their pre-existing scientific ideas, which may or may not be supported by the text itself. This is best seen in the language that describes the flood.

The first evidence of this is illustrated best by asking the question whether the flood was global. Even the idea of a globe (a geographical descriptor of the whole plant earth, referring to its spherical structure) is non-existent in the text. Instead kol eretz and ha eretz (translated as whole earth, the earth) have a much more localized and grounded meaning in Hebrew. Every timekol eretz is used in Genesis, it is speaking of a limited area. Eretz itself is actually better translated as soil or ground. (see Robert Alter's translation of Genesis)

When God creates ha shamayim and ha eretz in Genesis 1 (this is a Biblical merism, by the way), the text is not talking about "planet earth" and "space", it is quite literally saying that God created everything between the ground and the skies. It presupposes that everything else that exists was created by God as well (because He is the only creator), but for the sake of men and women - to whom the story is being written, it limits the scope of its descriptions to the things that we are directly familiar with that is the ground and the sky. In the same vein there is no mention of when or where angelic beings or the spirit realm were created, because they don't fall within the purvey or purpose of the story, they're simply presupposed to have been created by God, without any more details given.

When Genesis says that all the earth was covered, including the mountains, the scope of the language is by definition limited and local. Saying in English that all the soil was covered in water is very different from saying the whole earth was covered in water, although some may miss the distinction. Interestingly enough, even the quote from 2 Peter 2:5 talks in the same way - it doesn't say that the the planet earth was destroyed, instead it says that the LORD destroyed the world of the ungodly, limiting the scope of the destruction to that part of the world which was under the rule of ungodly men.

The Effects of the Flood

What then was the effect of the flood? Essentially, God reset His creation. He destroyed the world He created to cleanse it of sin, and cut off the corruption of men and Nephilim.

But wouldn't God have had to flood the entire planet, to achieve His goal of wiping out humanity? Simply put, no. The idea that humanity was spread out before the flood is born out of a mis-understanding of the text and how it relates to pre-history and current scientific theory about human development. The text clearly indicates that all of humanity after the flood descends Noah's family alone, therefore any human settlements would naturally be post-flood, and post-babel.

There is nothing to lead us to believe that humanity (or animal life) had spread over the entire globe, or wasn't otherwise concentrated and localized (actually, the story in Genesis regarding the tower of Babel seems to imply at the very least the human custom of staying closely together may have been both cultural and normative during this time period).

In this case, a severe, but local flood would have been enough to wipe out all of mankind, because all of mankind was centralized around the Garden of Eden and surrounding areas.

Other Theories about the Genesis, and the Flood's Effects and Reach

There are, of course, other theories about the flood's impact, some of which try to align themselves in varying degrees to contemporary scientific accounts of prehistory and human development. Some Biblical interpreters would postulate that Adam and Eve were not the first humans, rather the first human's with consciousness and therefore having souls (nephesh). These commentators assert that evolution happened for millions of years before God chose Adam and Eve - and that these other proto-humans (and their descendants) who would have populated the earth would not have needed destruction by the flood because God was only destroying wicked humanity.

While it can be understood why some commentators feel the need to mesh scientific understanding with Biblical interpretation, the above remains to me an example of how quickly things can get completely outside of the text if we are not careful with our hermeneutics. The above theories proved very popular 60 years ago before the human genome project confirmed 1 common ancestor pair for all human beings.

About our modern biases

Asking then, if the flood was global presupposes modern interpretive bias by introducing concepts and language into the discussion that aren't actually present in the Hebrew text of Genesis. But as modern people we are so scientifically minded, that we automatically interpret things through a scientific lens.

Because of these linguistic insights, some Bible scholars have tried to re-examine their modern-biased readings of the text, in favor of a more literal interpretation, based on the literal Hebrew meanings. To quote Dr. Gavin Ortlund in the article that was provided as a source by the questioner,

At the very least, allowing for the possibility of a local flood should not be written off as circumventing the “obvious meaning” of the text. For me, as far as I am aware, it is an effort to take seriously the meaning of the text, which involves what the original author meant for the original readers to take from it in its original context. In fact, what inclines me to imagine a huge but non-global event here in Genesis 6-8 is the text itself (the meaning of the Hebrew terms and phrases as they occur elsewhere in the Old Testament, for instance; or the sequence of Genesis 8:4-9).

While it may be in vogue in our culture to look at everything through the lens of scientific understanding and fit our theological framework into our cultural worldview, it's important to remember that Genesis itself was written as a polemic against the predominate cultural and continues in the same function today.

We shouldn't be surprised if Genesis does not always fit neatly with our cultural beliefs, especially when considering the cultural bias against Scripture and belief in Christ predominant in the West.

Conclusion

While I remain open to the geographical scope of the flood myself, the idea that a regional flood rather than a worldwide global event can only come from acquiescence to scientism, rather than simple hermeneutics, is erroneous. As is the idea that somehow a local flood would necessitate God lying or misleading people in regards to His actions. A local flood interpretation of the text is wholly congruent with the text itself and may fit better with the general scope and flow of the narrative.

As always, we should strive to have our minds teachable, and open to the correction that the study of scripture provides.

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    But let's say the local flood didn't affect several pre-historic human settlements in far-flung reaches from the Mediterranean, such as the aboriginal Australia or ancient China. Your answer hasn't dealt with the possibility that some ungodly people in those areas were not affected by God's action in that flood. How would the proponents solve that problem? Commented Oct 18 at 17:21
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    I don't think "global" needs to be conflated with knowledge of a globe (though I would strongly hesitate to assume Noah didn't know Earth was a "globe"). The obvious understanding of "the whole earth" would be any part of the planet reachable by any conceivable means of conveyance, whether foot, car, boat, etc. Moreover, even if we limit "whole earth" to be the totality of a single, contiguous land mass... the only way you will entirely cover that with water is with a global flood. Unless you postulate a supernatural invisible wall keeping the water in.
    – Matthew
    Commented Oct 18 at 20:37
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    As to "there is nothing to lead us to believe that animal life had spread over the entire globe"... as far as Scripture, this may be true, but we know from paleontology that animals spanned the globe (allegedly long before humans existed). No conceivable non-global flood, happening at a time when humans are alive, would "destroy every creature under heaven with the breath of life in it". (In fact, we know about all those aforementioned because they were buried... in one or more floods. Coincidence? I think not.)
    – Matthew
    Commented Oct 18 at 20:41
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    @GratefulDisciple "let's say the local flood didn't affect several pre-historic human settlements in far-flung reaches from the Mediterranean, such as the aboriginal Australia or ancient China. Your answer hasn't dealt with the possibility that some ungodly people in those areas were not affected by God's action in that flood." My answer isn't based on anthropology or archeology, but a hermeneutic analysis of text. If the text says that God destroyed all ungodly people, then there is no reason t to disbelieve it. Let me think through how I can improve my answer to address your points. Commented Oct 19 at 15:53
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    Two things as points of interest. 1) if creation is indicative of all creation then why couldn't a flood of the entire globe be reckoned as localized?, 2) How would a Mid Eastern localized flood explain the Grand canyon? Commented Oct 19 at 21:24

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