In the Bible, there is only one Jesus. To help us identify this one, the New Testament says a lot about the man who died on the cross and was resurrected. The relevant information that will answer the question can be briefly summed up as follows.
Before the virgin Mary miraculously conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit, there was the eternal Word of God, who was with God in the beginning, and who was God, and who made everything. The Word was made flesh, and those he called to follow him as the man, Jesus, beheld his glory, that of the only-begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. They declared him to be the Son of God (as did the Father in heaven). This is essential to grasp before the question can be answered. This is all in the opening section of John's gospel.
The Word becoming flesh as the man, Jesus, did not result in two Jesus's. There was no New Testament Jesus known as the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the word prior to the Word leaving heaven. The biblical Jesus did not exist until the incarnation of the Word of God - the eternal Son of God. The Son added human nature to his eternally existing divine nature. He was not, however, 50/50. He was fully God and fully man. That is what orthodoxly Christian teaching maintains. To quote from a minister in the Orthodox Presbyterian Church, USA in a recent article:
"Only the Son became incarnate, but he was sent by the Father,
conceived by the Spirit. On the cross the Son offered himself through
the eternal Spirit to the Father...
The incarnate Son, however, also has a human nature and human will
while still being one Person and one agent. He is both fully divine
and fully human, not 50/50... It follows from the discussions on the
Trinity. If Christ were two persons, there would have been no
incarnation, only an association or at best a conjunction. We could
not have been saved since the human actions of the Son would be those
of a man only... some of his actions are human ones (eating, drinking,
suffering, dying...) but since he is one undivided person they are not
to be seen as detached from who he is, the eternal Son.
Thus, as Cyril wrote (adopted and approved by the councils of Ephesus,
Chalcedon, Constantinople II and III from 431 to 681), one of the
Trinity suffered according to the flesh. God cannot die or be buried,
but the Son of God died and was buried according to his human nature."
Robert Letham in Evangelical Times Newspaper, August 2024, page 11,
responding to a letter.
This is not about spirit, soul and body with regard to the man, Jesus. The answer to the question lies in discovering the significance of the opening section of John's gospel account - the pre-human, eternal existence in heavenly glory before creation started. Once that is grasped, it will be seen that this one - the Word - agreed to be sent to Earth as the man named from birth as Jesus. He added human nature to his divine nature so that actual blood could be shed in the only sinless sacrifice for sin there has ever been, for "Without the shedding of blood, there is no forgiveness of sins" God's word declares. That is the Jesus who died - the one and only Jesus of the New Testament, raised to life with a glorious body, to return to where he had come from.
EDIT to respond to OPs comments below and above: There is a need to further clarify the claim that Christ is one person (not two), so as to understand in what sense Jesus (as God) died, if his spirit/soul never died; only his physical body did, yet how could his body never have a life of its own separate from the human spirit? This is why fully understanding the nephesh of man is vital. I will quote a few points from the book below, but as it takes 123 pages to explain Jesus as the Son of Man, I can only give a tit-bit.
"Nephesh, itself, is translated: soul, life, heart, creature, mind,
pleasure, will or desire; and many more. Clearly it conveys a very
broad concept of that which is within. Not of different nature from
that which encloses it, as nepheth shows; but that which is,
potentially, a different possession. Thinking of Ezekiel 18:4, I would
say that men, such as progenitors, may have some claim to that of us
which is created and material but there is that within us which is
also created but that is the possession of God himself and to him it
shall, most definitely return...
Finally, nacham is the releasing of oneself. One's real self is
released in a context were one had been, heretofore, unable to express
one's true self and one's real purpose and one's true disposition
["his glory veiled"]. Due to some change of circumstance, one is no
longer restricted and one's real self is released. Coming forth...
In fact, the Lord had been able to nacham consequent upon the
transgression of Saul. Released to do that which was in his own heart (for David was a man after God's heart) the Lord would remain constant to that which he, ever, was, within himself. Saul's outward
transgression revealed his unseen state of heart and released God to
do what was in his own heart - by means of the man, David, whose heart
was as the heart of God.
For the constancy of the Lord is a consistency with his own self. He
does nothing that is in conflict with what he is, by nature. Here is
his righteousness; a matter of his nature. I am that I am. His living
is consistent with that he is. Righteousness may require that he
restrain that which is his ultimate purpose, until circumstance permit
it. Then he shall do what is truly consistent to himself. He shall
nacham. But he shall not release himself from just obligation, as men do...
In like manner waits the Son of man now, until he is given authority.
Immediately he receives it, he shall dash the nations in pieces as
with a rod of iron shattering earthenware into shivers. As God bore
long in this age with men in the antediluvian age, until, in Noah, he
could nacham; so also the Father bears long in this age until all
things be accomplished and then shall the Son of man do all that is in
the heart of God, to the fulfilment of all things...
After death, the blood of Christ was poured out on earth; it redeemed
many when it was shed; it justified many, out of the faith of the one
who shed it; it was sprinkled in heaven, by him whose it was; it is
drunk in faith, in spirit; the blood of Christ washes and the blood of
Christ cleanses all who partake of it, by faith.
F) His Soul - Jesus speaks of his psuche on a number of occasions,
but sometimes the AV gives 'life' and sometimes 'soul'... Of the last
Adam [Christ] ...He is uncreated, a quickening spirit, zoe pneuma, 1
Corinthians 15:45, but without the italics of the AV which have no
place on earth. This as to what he is, of everlasting. Come of woman,
his living spirit is expressed through a psuche and of that psuche
he speaks. There is no need, logically or etymologically, to say any
more of that soul. It is a soul. To add another descriptive term to it
(and I absolutely refuse to do so) implies that other kinds of souls exist, which they do not. A soul is a soul. That is what it is...
G] His Spirit - ...Luke 23:46. After saying, Father, into thy hands I
will commit my spirit, voluntarily he expneuma." The Son - of man,
Nigel Johnstone, pages 27, 30-31, 83 & 87, Belmont, 2014
Alas, it needs many more points from this book to properly answer the question. Having read all of it myself, I can only urge reading of it on-line at the link below, or order a free copy. But this subject is so complex, it just is not possible to do justice to this complex question without in-depth study. Studying all 123 pages here would greatly assist. https://belmontpublications.co.uk/wp-content/uploads/2021/05/10A-The-Son-of-man.pdf