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Sep 2, 2018 at 23:33 comment added Calicoder I see what you mean. If it says "even" between "the Lord" and "the messenger of the covenant," it could possibly, thought not definitely, mean they are the same. But why do the different translations say otherwise? I think the whole problem was the version of the bible I was reading (NASB). I now see that alot of the other versions say "even"
Sep 2, 2018 at 2:57 comment added Nigel J the Lord, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant Malachi 3:1. The Lord ... even the messenger of the covenant. And it is quite clear from Isaiah and from Mark that the first messenger is John the Baptist.
Sep 2, 2018 at 2:52 comment added Calicoder But Malachi speaks of the Lord and the messenger of the covenant as though they are two separate people. Moreover, it could be that the messenger of the covenant in verse 3 is the same person as "my messenger" in verse 1. Couldn't that be the case?
Aug 28, 2018 at 23:05 comment added Nigel J Yes, wholeheartedly agreed. There is a great deal in these few verses. And then there is the consideration of why 'Judah and Jerusalem' when one might have thought that Judah would incorporate Jerusalem.
Aug 28, 2018 at 23:03 history edited Nigel J CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 28, 2018 at 22:55 comment added JDM-GBG Worth noting also: the word to Malachi says that the Levites will receive this purification, but it does not say that only the Levites will receive it. Verse 4 provides further context: "Then shall the offering of Judah and Jerusalem be pleasant unto the Lord, as in the days of old, and as in former years."
Aug 28, 2018 at 22:24 history answered Nigel J CC BY-SA 4.0