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Jul 1, 2015 at 9:09 answer added The Light of Faith timeline score: 1
Jun 18, 2015 at 20:14 comment added Marc The biblical support for the Assumption of Mary does not originate directly from the Canonical Scriptures, rather, the Feast of the Assumption has been recognized by the very same Authoritative Church That preserved recognized and arranged for us, the whole of Scripture. If the Church, under the inspiration and guidance of the Holy Spirit, can give to us the Bible itself with its Christ (God) given authority, it can do the same for feast days.
Jun 17, 2015 at 11:04 history edited curiousdannii
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Jun 17, 2015 at 8:37 vote accept Andrew
Jun 17, 2015 at 8:36 history edited Andrew CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 16, 2015 at 19:35 comment added Andrew @MattGutting Indeed. Those teachings along with their accompanying damnations for those who doubt and challenge them were dogmatically established as infallible by papal ex cathedra statements, though they had been held by the magisterium for some time proceeding. Ergo (Re. Marc's comment), they need not be supported scripturally to be held in the Catholic Church, and indeed must be held. I am still, however, asking about their biblical support.
Jun 16, 2015 at 17:37 comment added Matt Gutting @Andrew the doctrine, technically speaking, wasn't "established by papal decree", but it's doctrinality was. (Although perhaps that was what you were getting at.)
Jun 15, 2015 at 14:27 comment added Andrew @Marc... When I originally asked, I was unaware that this was one of two doctrines established by papal decree, the other being the immaculate conception of Mary. Your question "what is the biblical basis of biblical basis?" isn't relevant here, but perhaps you can ask a question about the motivation and support of the Protestant doctrine of sola scriptura.
Jun 15, 2015 at 14:26 comment added Andrew @Marc An important part of the answer is that this doctrine does not have biblical basis but remains valid within Catholic dogma because of the very position you take within Catholicism. However, the question is neutral toward the doctrine, and does not assume a doctrine must have biblical support to be true or ask if the doctrine is true (that would be off-topic) but simply asks for any support this particular doctrine has...
Jun 15, 2015 at 12:27 comment added Marc What is the Biblical Basis, for "biblical basis"? I find it difficult to answer a question using a guideline created by the traditions of men to appose the authority of a church who identified those scriptures in the first place. “Where does the doctrine of Mary’s assumption appear in episode #439 of the Superman Comic books” It has just as much relevance to the question of “Biblical Basis” as neither is called to be referenced.
Jun 13, 2015 at 8:59 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackChristian/status/609646292281765888
Jun 12, 2015 at 14:58 answer added Matt Gutting timeline score: 4
Jun 12, 2015 at 13:39 comment added The Freemason I believe the answer to this question can be found there. Exact duplicate? Agreed, it's not.
Jun 11, 2015 at 21:56 comment added user3961 Related: Was the Assumption of Mary a belief in the early church?
Jun 11, 2015 at 21:56 comment added user3961 @TheFreemason I agree with Andrew, but the link for the related nature of the question is convenient.
Jun 11, 2015 at 20:31 review Close votes
Jun 12, 2015 at 0:42
Jun 11, 2015 at 20:29 history edited Andrew CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 11, 2015 at 20:28 comment added Andrew @TheFreemason that question says "the Bible is silent about this matter" in the body of the question which is, I suppose, the answer to this question, but it offers no support. I'm asking for a supported answer. So, while they are certainly related, this question is certainly not a duplicate.
Jun 11, 2015 at 20:13 comment added The Freemason possible duplicate of Was the Assumption of Mary a belief in the early church?
Jun 11, 2015 at 20:06 history edited Andrew CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 11, 2015 at 18:09 answer added Plumbing for Ankit timeline score: 0
Jun 11, 2015 at 17:55 history asked Andrew CC BY-SA 3.0