Timeline for Why did Jesus use a Greek proverb when He spoke Aramaic to Saul in Acts 26:14?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
3 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 20, 2015 at 15:27 | comment | added | Plumbing for Ankit | They were in a bilingual area. Aramaic being regional and Greek being the common language of Roman-ruled areas. Moreover, the oldest manuscripts of the New Testament are all in Greek, as are mentions of the earliest writings. Greek names, Greek writing, Greek speech, Greek-speaking followers, Greek followup writing. biblica.com/en-us/bible/bible-faqs/… | |
| May 20, 2015 at 0:46 | comment | added | user900 | "the Greek manuscripts of the gospels" - there are no extant originals, so I don't see how the extant Greek manuscripts have any relevance to what language the originals would have been composed in. "the Greek names of his disciples" - and they also have Aramaic names - does that mean they have one Greek parent and one Aramaic parent? | |
| May 18, 2015 at 14:46 | history | answered | Plumbing for Ankit | CC BY-SA 3.0 |