Timeline for How do Trinitarians explain the almost exclusive use of singular pronouns to refer to God in the Bible?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Jul 24 at 20:05 | comment | added | Aleph-Gimel | Nevermind...you addressed that in your answer! | |
| Jul 24 at 20:04 | comment | added | Aleph-Gimel | Gotcha thanks. What about the Jewish understanding of "us"? | |
| Jul 24 at 18:54 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | @Aleph-Gimel I modified the answer. If questions like the ones you pose are asked, the answers are hidden in the OT and revealed in the NT. My contention is two-fold. First, the requirement for explicitness numerical or otherwise is not Biblical. Clear example is a unique Son of God which is absent from the OT. Second, if one accepts there is a unique Son of God, it is impossible to exclude Him from Genesis 1:26, and "us" immediately becomes Father and Son. I find the Unitarian and JW understanding of "firstborn of creation" inconsistent with their understanding of "us" and "our" in Genesis. | |
| Jul 24 at 18:47 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jul 24 at 18:27 | comment | added | Aleph-Gimel | "God's initial self-identification to mankind is with first-person plural pronouns which are used in the creation of man. Isn't this one enough?" - No...at least not to arrive at a modern trinitarian understanding. All you have is, "us", here. How many are there? What are their names? Are they all eternal...etc. I think i get your point though? | |
| Jul 24 at 16:25 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jul 24 at 6:14 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jul 24 at 6:08 | history | answered | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |