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Matthew 9:1-8 (NIV)
1 Jesus stepped into a boat, crossed over and came to his own town. 2 Some men brought to him a paralyzed man, lying on a mat. When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the man, “Take heart, son; your sins are forgiven.” 3 At this, some of the teachers of the law said to themselves, “This fellow is blaspheming!”

4 Knowing their thoughts, Jesus said, “Why do you entertain evil thoughts in your hearts? 5 Which is easier: to say, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Get up and walk’? 6 But I want you to know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins.” So he said to the paralyzed man, “Get up, take your mat and go home.” 7 Then the man got up and went home.
8 When the crowd saw this, they were filled with awe; and they praised God, who had given such authority to man.

What does Matthew 9:5 mean?

Taken literally, it doesn't seem to make any sense at all. What is the verse trying to say?

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8 Answers 8

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Christ is using his ability to perform miracles as evidence that he is God, and therefore has the right and the ability to forgive sins.

He is saying, anyone can say "Your sins are forgiven," without any evidence that they have the authority to do so. But only God can heal a paralytic. So by performing such a miracle, Christ is proving that he has the authority of God both to heal and to forgive sin.

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  • 2
    @Pacerier: Maybe read the answer again? I think it's pretty clear. Both sentences are easy to just say, but you need to look beyond the act of speaking and look at what Jesus is doing.
    – styfle
    Jan 12, 2012 at 5:16
  • @Pacerier - Your second option seems closer. The pharisees questioned Jesus' authority to forgive sins, so he showed his authority by healing the paralyzed man. Jan 12, 2012 at 18:46
  • The key phrase, which explains the meaning of Christ's words here, is: "'But I want you to know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins.' So he said to the paralyzed man, 'Get up, take your mat and go home.'"
    – synaptik
    Jan 15, 2014 at 20:10
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You must take verses 5 and 6 together, as they're a single statement. Christ has just told the paralyzed man that his sins are forgiven, and the teachers around Him that saw it believed His statement of forgiveness was blasphemy as only God can forgive sins. They failed to recognize that Christ was God. So, He then makes a point of showing them that it's just as easy for Him to heal a body as it is to forgive sins. He then solidifies His position by healing the man, proving that He does have power over the physical, removing their doubt of his power over the spiritual.

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  • So the answer to the question in 9:5 is that they are equally easy?
    – Pacerier
    May 24, 2014 at 7:07
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    No... it's just that saying "your sins are forgiven" is something that's easier to say because nobody can actually tell if the sins were forgiven "for real". However, to show that both statements were true, Christ also spoke the more difficult "get up and walk", which being confirmed, shows that Christ also had authority to speak the first one. Apr 22, 2016 at 21:14
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It is vitally important that you look at the previous few verses in order to get context. Let's take the whole passage in the NIV:

Some men brought to him a paralyzed man, lying on a mat. When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the man, “Take heart, son; your sins are forgiven.” At this, some of the teachers of the law said to themselves, “This fellow is blaspheming!” Knowing their thoughts, Jesus said, “Why do you entertain evil thoughts in your hearts? Which is easier: to say, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Get up and walk’? But I want you to know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins.” So he said to the paralyzed man, “Get up, take your mat and go home.” Then the man got up and went home. When the crowd saw this, they were filled with awe; and they praised God, who had given such authority to man.

Jesus has pronounced forgiveness of the man's sins. The Pharisees object, saying that "only God can forgive sins". The Pharisees would agree that forgiving sins is easier than having the man walk again, so Jesus makes him walk again as a clear demonstration that he has the power to do both.

It has nothing to do with the sickness being caused by sin. Jesus clearly breaks that connection elsewhere.

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I can't tell if this answer is too late or not, but.

I've always read this verse and wonderes why it was necessary to show that the Son of Man has power to forgive sins "on earth", specifically. He wasn't showing them that he had the power to forgive sins, but to forgive sins specifically on earth.

This never made sense to me until I read Zechariah 3, where the angel of YHWH forgives Zechariah's sins in heaven. Note, in heaven. That unlocked the meaning of the passage for me. Yeshua wasn't just declaring that he was YHWH in this scene, but that he was the angel of YHWH, specifically. (Note that the angel of YHWH is called "YHWH of hosts" in Hosea, for example: that's his name.)

So Yeshua is asking a very interesting question when he asks "which is easier to say". Note, that they accuse him of blasphemy for the first thing he said. That was done on purpose. The man isn't healed until Yeshua says "get up and walk", so the first act was meant to set up the line about the Son of Man's authority on earth. It allows him to teach the point before he does the healing. In which case, I disagree with claims that the person's ailment wasn't connected to his sin. That seems to be heavily implied. It doesn't mean that all ailments are caused by sin, which is what people are trying to avoid. This particular person's sin lead to his ailment. It's as simple as leaving it at that and letting the text say what it says, particularly given that there's evidence elsewhere that you can use to refute anyone who would try to derive a general principle about illness from this particular instance.

Getting back to the point. What Yeshua is saying, then, when he asks "which is easier", has to do with the manner in which he's revealing his deity to them. You can say that this is the first event that sets off the enmity between him and the Pharisees etc, which sparks their desire to murder him for blasphemy. Yet none of the "regular" people around him seem to recognize the fullness of what he did and said. It seems like only the teachers of the law got it. I think that was intentional. We are not only supposed to understand the revealing of deity, but also why he did it in the way that he did it.

Remember, the Disciples never understood that Yeshua had to die until after the resurrection when he opened their eyes/minds to the text and they became Apostles, and so they likely didn't understand that he was YHWH either. But they wrote these things so that we could read them basically from the Holy Spirit's perspective, knowing who Yeshua is + the fundamental "why" of what he was doing, and of why he's doing it the way he's doing it.

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    – agarza
    Apr 15, 2021 at 23:37
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If I knew I was going to die on the cross for your sins than forgiveness of sins would be the most difficult. The Question posed to the Pharisees is postured in a way that they should be the ones to understand that the forgiveness of sins is from God alone and that Jesus is the Messiah. The Pharisees are the ones who know everything about the Messiah and fail to recognize that He IS. Jesus is once again proving His Diety to the ones who should know Him best but they have there spiritual eyes closed. This is not an exercise in futility this is for the purpose of showing the world that He is the One for whom God is well pleased. Are you?

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  • Hi, and welcome to the Christianity.SE! I come to tell you that this answer does not meet the website's standards for answers. In order to make an answer acceptable, you must be able to cite your sources or state the denominational viewpoint from which you speak.
    – Double U
    Mar 9, 2014 at 16:10
  • My doctrine is the doctrine of Christ. My denomination is the way, the truth and the life. I am pretty sure that is the whole point that is missed by the Pharisees Mar 9, 2014 at 18:22
  • I think you should read this Meta page and understand the community's guidelines for writing responses. Although you can personally believe that your doctrine is the doctrine of Christ and your denomination is the way, the truth, and the life, for practical purposes on this website, you must write your earthly denomination and its pertinent teachings. Thank you for your consideration. :)
    – Double U
    Mar 9, 2014 at 18:30
  • @Anonymous don't be too hard on him - none of the other answers have given their denominational background.
    – curiousdannii
    Mar 9, 2014 at 22:30
  • @curiousdannii Well, I think I shouldn't be too hard on Robert Flaaskog, because he is a newcomer. If he weren't a newcomer, and other people have failed to meet the guidelines, then there should be no excuses. I'm just trying to live up to the site's standards, that's all. You know, a Christian's relationship with God is the same way. Just because everyone else does it does not make it right; following God is right. ;)
    – Double U
    Mar 9, 2014 at 23:34
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It's rooted in the idea that the man's affliction was a result of a past sin. Exactly what or why, we aren't told. But when people questioned Jesus for presuming to forgive the man's sin (which only God has the authority to do, and they weren't convinced of his divinity,) he pointed out that it's just as easy to say "your sins are forgiven" (thus implying that the punishment is rescinded) as to say "get up and walk," and that the two are basically equivalent.

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  • Do you mean to say that if Matthew 9:15 is rephrased un-rhetorically, it would be along the lines of: ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ is just as easy to say as ‘Get up and walk’ ?
    – Pacerier
    Aug 23, 2011 at 23:37
  • @Pacerier: Yeah, basically.
    – Mason Wheeler
    Aug 23, 2011 at 23:42
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    No, no, no, no, no! Aug 30, 2011 at 3:35
  • @DJ: Umm... would you mind explaining your point of view? It's a bit unclear at the moment...
    – Mason Wheeler
    Aug 30, 2011 at 3:41
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    1. It's nothing to do with sin being the cause of sickness (a link which Jesus contradicts elsewhere). 2. Jesus point is that his ability to heal is indication of his power to forgive sins, not that they are "just as easy". Aug 30, 2011 at 18:02
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Praise the Lord!

Dear Brothers and Sisters, I was meditating on this portion and some of the posts helped me to think. I am a pentecostal believer attending a full gospel church. Lets read verses Psalm 41:4 and 103:3 These verses show that sin came first and then forgiveness from God brought forth healing. Healing is a result and forgiveness is the step.

Jesus was saying is it easier to jump to the result, or climb the step at a time?

Most definitely, climbing the step and not leaping to the result.

Acts 3:6 proves this again.

Hope it helps.

God bless

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He's saying they are the same. That illness is psychosomatic, emotional, and contextual. Sins represent the man's relationship to his social world, that directly or indirectly produces his illness.

That we are interdependent and relationships determine individuals.

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    This answer would be a lot better if you could add references showing that this is a common understanding, and who teaches/believes it. Remember that "I believe it means..." isn't an acceptable answer, since this site isn't about personal interpretation. See How we are different than other sites? and What makes a good supported answer? Mar 4, 2014 at 0:11
  • There is nothing in this passage to suggest the illness was caused by anyone's sin. (Other than Adam's in the most distant sense.)
    – curiousdannii
    Mar 9, 2014 at 22:32

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