meta user
network profile
| bio | website | |
|---|---|---|
| location | Taiwan | |
| age | ||
| visits | member for | 1 year, 8 months |
| seen | 2 hours ago | |
| stats | profile views | 170 |
I often chose best answers not because they are the best, but because I have to choose a best answer. Please, don't take offense to it.
|
Sep 27 |
comment |
Did the early Church Fathers have a complete agreement on how to interpret 1 Peter 3:18-20? @warren - Thanks. |
|
Sep 27 |
comment |
Did the early Church Fathers have a complete agreement on how to interpret 1 Peter 3:18-20? @warren - I am looking at the specific clauses - just high-lightened them in the question. The main points are: 1) Who are those spirits?; 2) What is that prison?; and 3) What exactly did Jesus proclaim to them? |
|
Sep 27 |
revised |
Did the early Church Fathers have a complete agreement on how to interpret 1 Peter 3:18-20? added 4 characters in body |
|
Sep 27 |
comment |
Did the early Church Fathers have a complete agreement on how to interpret 1 Peter 3:18-20? @warren - What do you mean? |
|
Sep 27 |
asked | Did the early Church Fathers have a complete agreement on how to interpret 1 Peter 3:18-20? |
|
Sep 27 |
revised |
When did the teaching that salvation can still be obtained by people after their physical death first appear in the Christianity? added 33 characters in body |
|
Sep 27 |
comment |
When did the teaching that salvation can still be obtained by people after their physical death first appear in the Christianity? (2) in no way can it be considered a teaching. 1 Peter 3:18-20 looks more like an evidence of a teaching already existing at that time, but my! the matter of how to interpret these verses is so debatable! Just ascribe "souls" there to humans, and "spirits" to angels, and you'll make it totally irrelevant to my question. |
|
Sep 27 |
comment |
When did the teaching that salvation can still be obtained by people after their physical death first appear in the Christianity? (1) I agree with Caleb on this one. Perhaps, I should've said "since the canon was formed" - I'll edit my question.Those verses can hardly be described as well-formed teachings, especially the first one. 1 Corinthians 15:29 could probably serve as a kind of basis (rather shaky one) for a teaching, but |
|
Sep 26 |
revised |
When did the teaching that salvation can still be obtained by people after their physical death first appear in the Christianity? deleted 4 characters in body |
|
Sep 26 |
revised |
When did the teaching that salvation can still be obtained by people after their physical death first appear in the Christianity? edited title |
|
Sep 26 |
revised |
When did the teaching that salvation can still be obtained by people after their physical death first appear in the Christianity? deleted 2 characters in body |
|
Sep 26 |
comment |
In what sense do Mormons believe salvation is only through Christ? (2) them by their prophet to whom they all, of course, all listen and believe - despite the fact that the incumbent prophet at times does and teaches something directly opposite to the previous prophets. |
|
Sep 26 |
comment |
In what sense do Mormons believe salvation is only through Christ? (1) My impression is that Mormons themselves have no logical explanations to their own teachings. No matter how many times you talk to them, they would either recite to you what they were told to recite in their chapel, or they would just say "Well, we don't know. As the Bible says, the hidden hings belong to God", however, the fact that the hidden things belong to God doesn't stop them from repeating as mantra "I know that Joseph Smith is the true prophet and that the LDS' church is the true church" and preaching that formula to other people. And , of course, the hidden things get revealed to |
|
Sep 26 |
revised |
What is the scriptural basis for the idea that salvation can still be obtained after death? my question is not limited only to the Eastern Orthodox view. My view is an overview question about the scriptural basis for this doctrine, regardles of which branch of Christianity it comes from |
|
Sep 26 |
asked | When did the teaching that salvation can still be obtained by people after their physical death first appear in the Christianity? |
|
Sep 25 |
comment |
What is the scriptural basis for the idea that salvation can still be obtained after death? @Caleb - Honestly, if I wanted to hear the E.O. defense of this doctrine, I would've said that in my question. However, I am more or less familiar with how they would defend this doctrine - they would say that their tradition says so. In the present question, however, I am interested strictly in the available scriptural support (if any) for that teaching, therefore, I didn't even want to specify any group at all. |
|
Sep 25 |
comment |
What is the scriptural basis for the idea that salvation can still be obtained after death? "Note though that this is speculation and not a central belief of any mainstream Christian denomination" - As far as I know, it's one of the main believes in Eastern Orthodoxy: gotquestions.org/Eastern-Orthodox-church.html |
|
Sep 25 |
comment |
What is the scriptural basis for the idea that salvation can still be obtained after death? @waxeagle - citation: gotquestions.org/Eastern-Orthodox-church.html |
|
Sep 24 |
comment |
What is the scriptural basis for the idea that salvation can still be obtained after death? @waxeagle - Okay: The Eastern Orthodox Church |
|
Sep 24 |
revised |
What is the scriptural basis for the idea that salvation can still be obtained after death? deleted 4 characters in body |
