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I often chose best answers not because they are the best, but because I have to choose a best answer. Please, don't take offense to it.


May
1
awarded  Famous Question
Apr
28
revised What is the scriptural basis for the idea that salvation can still be obtained after death?
deleted 239 characters in body
Apr
28
asked How do Congregationalists explain 1st Tim 1:3 and Titus 1:5?
Apr
27
comment Matthew 18:10 “Children's angels always behold the face of the Father” - what does this mean?
@AndreasBlass - "The verse doesn't say that adults don't also have guardian angels who behold the face of God" - However, the verse doesn't say 'their angels do ALSO always behold the face of my Father' either. True, the verse does not deny the fact of existence of an individual guardian angel for each adult, but neither does it explicitly state that it talks exactly about the individual guardian angels. It may be a special group of angels that are somehow responsible for some additional protection for humans while they are still in the early days of their life course.
Apr
27
revised Matthew 18:10 “Children's angels always behold the face of the Father” - what does this mean?
edited body
Apr
27
comment Matthew 18:10 “Children's angels always behold the face of the Father” - what does this mean?
@Andrew - By 'this place' I meant 'this place in the Scriptures', that is, Matthew 18:10. Perhaps, the word 'verse' would be better here. I will edit my question.
Apr
27
asked Matthew 18:10 “Children's angels always behold the face of the Father” - what does this mean?
Apr
24
revised What is the basis of my fractured understanding of “Sola Scriptura”?
added 12 characters in body
Apr
19
awarded  Notable Question
Apr
10
accepted Books of NT written after the assumption of Mary
Apr
10
comment Books of NT written after the assumption of Mary
My question was "... after assumption of Mary", not "... after the earliest reference to the assumption of Mary".
Apr
10
asked Books of NT written after the assumption of Mary
Apr
8
comment Was this teaching (of soul existing before a birth) condemned by the Church?
@BrianHitchcock - So what about the souls of the martyred ones that John saw under the alter in Rev 6:9? Do you mean to say that they are the spirits that had already been somehow re-united with their bodies by that time? John says specifically that he saw souls.
Apr
7
comment Was this teaching (of soul existing before a birth) condemned by the Church?
(2) In other words, the existence of a function and the manifestation of that function are two different things – if function hasn’t been manifested it doesn’t mean that the function does not exist. However, what St. Thomas says is basically this: because the soul is not united with the body (= is not yet manifested) it doesn’t exist. I don’t see his logic here.
Apr
7
comment Was this teaching (of soul existing before a birth) condemned by the Church?
(1) “But I think he's talking about Adam's creation, not ours. Adam was created fully functional” – Yes. That’s exactly what I mean. Adam was created fully functional, which means that the function of being fruitful and multiplying was in him as soon as he was created. However, it doesn’t mean that he started being fruitful and multiplying right at the moment of his creation – at least not before God said “be fruitful and multiply”.
Apr
6
comment Was this teaching (of soul existing before a birth) condemned by the Church?
Sorry, I didn't understand your point. What do you mean?
Apr
6
comment Was this teaching (of soul existing before a birth) condemned by the Church?
(4) A more simple example – human lungs. As we know, humans only start using their lungs at the moment of their birth and the first exposure to the air. While the baby is still inside of mother’s womb, it doesn’t yet breathe using lungs. So, you could tell that lungs of a human come into the state of "natural perfection" at the moment when he starts to breathe. However, how does it prove that before the human baby is born it doesn’t already have lungs?
Apr
6
comment Was this teaching (of soul existing before a birth) condemned by the Church?
(3) You could tell that their ability for childbearing came into the state of its "natural perfection" when they gave a birth to their first child, but does it really mean that they only acquired this ability at the very moment of giving a birth? I guess they already had this ability in them when they were created. For sure, when God was commanding them to be fruitful and multiply, they already had this ability in them, otherwise it would’ve been rather unfair for God to command them to do something that they weren’t naturally able to do.
Apr
6
comment Was this teaching (of soul existing before a birth) condemned by the Church?
(2) After all, there were many things pertaining to the human nature that were not immediately in the state of their "natural perfection" right at the moment of creation. Take or example humans’ ability for childbearing. Humans did not start giving birth to other humans right after they were created. In fact, it even took God to tell them “be fruitful and multiply and replenish the earth” before they could give a birth to their first child.
Apr
6
comment Was this teaching (of soul existing before a birth) condemned by the Church?
(1) I've re-read your link number of times, but still didn't get the logic there. For example, this: "Now the soul, as a part of human nature, has its natural perfection only as united to the body. Therefore it would have been unfitting for the soul to be created without the body". I don't get this logic. How does the fact that the soul gets its "natural perfection" only as united to the body proves that it was not created without a body first?