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Jul
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comment Is premarital sex πορνεία (porneia)?
Cris: Good question. First, Jesus was speaking to Jews about adultery, which in their world meant: sex with another man's wife. The word woman = wife in Greek and Hebrew. Context determines the English translation (most translators miss the fact that the woman being lusted for in this context must be married). If the man looking at a woman to desire sex with her carried out his desire, it would have been adultery. Jesus taught that adultery [sex with a married woman] was committed already in his heart. Not about sex with unmarried women, which both married and single men were permitted. Lev.18
Jul
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Jul
4
comment Is premarital sex πορνεία (porneia)?
Repeating my comment from Richard's answer above: The custom of the day was that a betrothed virgin was regarded as a man's wife. When the wedding day came, if she was not still the virgin he contracted and paid for, then she was guilty of adultery, a capital offense. Compare to Exodus 22:16-17 and see that premarital sex by an unbetrothed virgin brought no punishment upon the girl. Fornication used to mean what porneia meant in Greek: prostitution. The meaning of fornication expanded in our language, just like it did in the NT. However it can't be demonstrated that it referred to PrM sex.
Jul
4
comment Is premarital sex πορνεία (porneia)?
I agree that we must use a combination of Greek and Hebrew dictionaries, plus study the contexts and customs of the day. We have to be careful to avoid "reading into" the text from our own culture. The custom of the day was that a betrothed virgin was regarded as a man's wife. When the wedding day came, if she was not still the virgin he contracted and paid for, then she was guilty of adultery, a capital offense. Compare to Exodus 22:16-17 and see that premarital sex by an unbetrothed virgin brought no punishment upon the girl.
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answered What is the biblical basis to claim that masturbation is a sin?
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