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The statement that the faith of the Romans “is being reported all over the world” (Romans 1:8) is evidence that the Christian community of Rome had grown to some size. Raymond E.Brown says in An Introduction to the New Testament, page 561, that Paul’s letter implies that the community had been in existence for a long time, since he had been wishing “for many ...


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In the first place: the pronoun "they" in Romans 1:27 does not refer to the Romans reading the letter, nor necessarily to anyone they knew. It refers back to the group described in Romans 1:18 as those who suppress the truth by their wickedness These may or may not have been actual specific persons; the New American Bible (the standard Bible to be used ...


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First off: knowing this first: that no prophecy of the Scripture is of any private interpretation. (2 Peter 1:20) I would not hinge your belief on such a hotly debated topic based on the way prominent theologians interpret it. We can understand the Word ourselves: by which, when you read, you may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ ...


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At 3:28 Luther introduced the adv. “only” into his translation of Romans (1522), “alleyn durch den Glauben” (WAusg 7.38); cf. Aus der Bibel 1546, “alleine durch den Glauben” (WAusg, DB 7.39); also 7.3-27 (Pref. to the Epistle). See further his Sendbrief vom Dolmetschen, of 8 Sept. 1530 (WAusg 30.2 [1909], 627-49; “On Translating: An Open Letter” [LuthW ...


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Yes. Luther added the word 'alone' in Romans 3:28 in the German Translation he made. It was added to emphasize the meaning of the text. Jutification is by faith apart from the works of the Law. If it is apart from the works of the Law and by faith,then,it means by faith alone. Note that the works of the Law incudes all works including good works ( ...


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Jesus was the head Rabbi of all of Israel with Semika so he was already anointed and special. Over the years this fact has been lost and up until recent times I think that we think he was an illiterate carpenter who just 'marched around' and did as he pleased. No one asked the obvious - why did he judge a trial with a death punishment? Why did he have ...


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Then there would be no pressure to take Jesus to the cross. God would have never sent him cause that was his purpose for that time. I don't really like what if's. There's no way to really answer the question. God all ready knew the Jews wouldn't accept Christ.


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This question reminds me of the "felix culpa" ("happy fault [of Adam]")¹ question of whether Christ would have become incarnate had Adam not sinned. If Adam had not sinned, how could've God worked greater goods? Similarly in the case of the fall of the Jews: If the Jews had not fallen, how could there be "the salvation of the Gentiles by means of the death ...



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