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I take the passage as God having one covenant with Israel, and Israel, having to make two attempts to respond to that covenant. The covenant is the promise from God, and it is not affected by the fact that the first set of tablets was broken; the second set of tablets was proof that the covenant endured.


The definition of sin is found in 1 John 3:4, which is transgression against the Law. If it isn't explicitly stated such as, "man shall not lie with man as with a woman, it is abomination", then to claim something as sin when it isn't is a sin on you. For those claiming polygamy is a sin or disobedience, you are actually in sin based on Deuteronomy 4:2;12:32 ...

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