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Matthew's Gospel alone uses the Greek word ὅραμα to describe the Transfiguration. This can be translated into English either as 'that which is seen' or as 'vision', leading to differences among different Bible translations - those that prefer 'what you have seen' include NIV, NLT, God's Word Translation and World English Bible, while most others use 'vision' ...


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Another possibility: In chapter 1, John is making an evangelistic appeal to his fellow unsaved Jews (hence his use of "we" and "us") who would claim on God but, without Christ, would be at enmity with Him. Especially note vv. 1-5...these are things believers would already know. A self-righteous Jew, however, would not believe that but would think exactly ...


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Hershel Shanks says, in Christianity and Rabbinic Judaism: A Parallel History of Their Origins and Early Development, page 172, that continuing friction among early Christians over the nature of Jesus is evident in the Johannine epistles. He points out that 1 John criticises ‘secessionists’ who departed in a dispute over the reality of sin (1 John 1:8-10) ...



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